WGU C805 OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT 300
ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALE LATEST UPDATE
ALRAERDY GRADED A+
The WGU C805 Pathophysiology Objective Assessment (OA) is a
comprehensive exam that evaluates a student's understanding of disease
mechanisms and altered physiological processes across all major body systems
. It covers core topics including cellular adaptation and injury, inflammation,
immune responses, fluid and electrolyte imbalances, genetic disorders, and
infectious diseases . The exam also extensively tests knowledge of
cardiovascular, pulmonary, renal, endocrine, gastrointestinal, and
neurological pathophysiology . Students are expected to apply clinical
reasoning to complex scenarios, identify disease manifestations, and
understand the interplay between systems . Preparation involves mastering
foundational concepts, practicing with scenario-based questions, and
understanding both acute and chronic disease processes .
1. A patient with chronic hepatitis C develops liver fibrosis and cirrhosis. This is
an example of which type of cellular adaptation?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Metaplasia
D. Dysplasia
Answer: C. Metaplasia
Rationale: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one differentiated cell type
with another. Chronic irritation from viral hepatitis can lead to metaplasia as an
adaptive response to chronic stress, though cirrhosis also involves extensive
fibrosis.
2. Which three factors are causes of cellular injury?
A. Hypoxia, physical agents, and genetic mutations
B. Adequate ATP production and balanced electrolytes
C. Increased cellular hypertrophy and hyperplasia
D. Anaerobic glycolysis and metabolic alkalosis
,Answer: A. Hypoxia, physical agents, and genetic mutations
Rationale: Cellular injury can result from hypoxia (oxygen deprivation), physical
agents (trauma, temperature extremes), and genetic mutations. Adequate ATP and
balanced electrolytes promote cell health rather than injury.
3. Loss of membrane integrity during irreversible cell injury leads to:
A. Cellular adaptation
B. Increased ATP production
C. Cellular hypertrophy
D. Leakage of lysosomal enzymes
Answer: D. Leakage of lysosomal enzymes
Rationale: When cell membranes lose integrity, lysosomal enzymes leak into the
cytoplasm, causing autodigestion and cell death. This is a hallmark of irreversible
injury.
4. A neoplasm that invades surrounding tissues and metastasizes is classified as:
A. Benign
B. Malignant
C. Hyperplastic
D. Metaplastic
Answer: B. Malignant
Rationale: Malignant tumors invade surrounding tissues and metastasize through
the bloodstream or lymphatic system. Benign tumors remain localized and do not
spread.
5. Which three are tumor suppressor genes?
A. TP53, RB1, and BRCA1
B. RAS, MYC, and SRC
C. HER2, EGFR, and KRAS
D. BCL2, ABL, and JUN
Answer: A. TP53, RB1, and BRCA1
Rationale: TP53, RB1, and BRCA1 are tumor suppressor genes that normally
regulate cell growth. Mutations in these genes contribute to cancer by allowing
uncontrolled cell division. RAS, MYC, and SRC are oncogenes.
6. A patient with a family history of breast cancer tests positive for a BRCA1
mutation. This mutation is associated with which mechanism of cancer?
A. Activation of proto-oncogenes
B. Loss of tumor suppressor function
C. Increased angiogenesis
,D. Enhanced DNA repair
Answer: B. Loss of tumor suppressor function
Rationale: BRCA1 is a tumor suppressor gene involved in DNA repair. Mutations
in BRCA1 result in loss of function, increasing the risk of breast and ovarian
cancers due to accumulation of DNA damage.
7. Which type of immunity is mediated by T lymphocytes?
A. Humoral immunity
B. Innate immunity
C. Cell-mediated immunity
D. Passive immunity
Answer: C. Cell-mediated immunity
Rationale: Cell-mediated immunity involves T lymphocytes (T cells) that directly
attack infected cells or coordinate immune responses. Humoral immunity involves
B cells and antibodies.
8. A patient experiences an allergic reaction to penicillin. This is an example of
which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Answer: A. Type I
Rationale: Type I hypersensitivity is IgE-mediated and occurs rapidly after
exposure to allergens such as penicillin. Symptoms include anaphylaxis, urticaria,
and bronchospasm.
9. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is classified as which type of
hypersensitivity?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Answer: C. Type III
Rationale: SLE involves immune complex deposition (Type III hypersensitivity)
leading to tissue damage in multiple organs including skin, kidneys, and joints.
Autoantibodies attack self-antigens.
10. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis experiences joint destruction due to which
hypersensitivity mechanism?
, A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Answer: C. Type III
Rationale: Rheumatoid arthritis is primarily a Type III hypersensitivity disorder
involving immune complex deposition in synovial joints, leading to chronic
inflammation and joint destruction. Type IV involves T-cell mediated responses.
11. A patient with AIDS has a CD4 T-cell count below 200 cells/uL. This places
the patient at risk for which opportunistic infection?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae pneumonia
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
D. Staphylococcus aureus bacteremia
Answer: C. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
Rationale: Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia is an opportunistic infection seen in
AIDS patients with CD4 counts below 200 cells/uL. It is a leading cause of
morbidity in immunocompromised patients.
12. HIV primarily infects which cells?
A. CD8 T lymphocytes
B. B lymphocytes
C. CD4 T lymphocytes
D. Natural killer cells
Answer: C. CD4 T lymphocytes
Rationale: HIV targets CD4 T lymphocytes by binding to the CD4 receptor and co-
receptors (CCR5 or CXCR4). This leads to progressive depletion of CD4 cells and
immunodeficiency.
13. A patient with HIV infection is started on highly active antiretroviral therapy
(HAART). The goal of this therapy is to:
A. Eliminate the virus from the body
B. Increase CD4 count and reduce viral load
C. Prevent transmission to others
D. Cure the infection
Answer: B. Increase CD4 count and reduce viral load
Rationale: HAART aims to suppress HIV replication, reducing viral load to
undetectable levels and allowing immune recovery with increased CD4 counts. It
cannot eliminate the virus.
ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALE LATEST UPDATE
ALRAERDY GRADED A+
The WGU C805 Pathophysiology Objective Assessment (OA) is a
comprehensive exam that evaluates a student's understanding of disease
mechanisms and altered physiological processes across all major body systems
. It covers core topics including cellular adaptation and injury, inflammation,
immune responses, fluid and electrolyte imbalances, genetic disorders, and
infectious diseases . The exam also extensively tests knowledge of
cardiovascular, pulmonary, renal, endocrine, gastrointestinal, and
neurological pathophysiology . Students are expected to apply clinical
reasoning to complex scenarios, identify disease manifestations, and
understand the interplay between systems . Preparation involves mastering
foundational concepts, practicing with scenario-based questions, and
understanding both acute and chronic disease processes .
1. A patient with chronic hepatitis C develops liver fibrosis and cirrhosis. This is
an example of which type of cellular adaptation?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Metaplasia
D. Dysplasia
Answer: C. Metaplasia
Rationale: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one differentiated cell type
with another. Chronic irritation from viral hepatitis can lead to metaplasia as an
adaptive response to chronic stress, though cirrhosis also involves extensive
fibrosis.
2. Which three factors are causes of cellular injury?
A. Hypoxia, physical agents, and genetic mutations
B. Adequate ATP production and balanced electrolytes
C. Increased cellular hypertrophy and hyperplasia
D. Anaerobic glycolysis and metabolic alkalosis
,Answer: A. Hypoxia, physical agents, and genetic mutations
Rationale: Cellular injury can result from hypoxia (oxygen deprivation), physical
agents (trauma, temperature extremes), and genetic mutations. Adequate ATP and
balanced electrolytes promote cell health rather than injury.
3. Loss of membrane integrity during irreversible cell injury leads to:
A. Cellular adaptation
B. Increased ATP production
C. Cellular hypertrophy
D. Leakage of lysosomal enzymes
Answer: D. Leakage of lysosomal enzymes
Rationale: When cell membranes lose integrity, lysosomal enzymes leak into the
cytoplasm, causing autodigestion and cell death. This is a hallmark of irreversible
injury.
4. A neoplasm that invades surrounding tissues and metastasizes is classified as:
A. Benign
B. Malignant
C. Hyperplastic
D. Metaplastic
Answer: B. Malignant
Rationale: Malignant tumors invade surrounding tissues and metastasize through
the bloodstream or lymphatic system. Benign tumors remain localized and do not
spread.
5. Which three are tumor suppressor genes?
A. TP53, RB1, and BRCA1
B. RAS, MYC, and SRC
C. HER2, EGFR, and KRAS
D. BCL2, ABL, and JUN
Answer: A. TP53, RB1, and BRCA1
Rationale: TP53, RB1, and BRCA1 are tumor suppressor genes that normally
regulate cell growth. Mutations in these genes contribute to cancer by allowing
uncontrolled cell division. RAS, MYC, and SRC are oncogenes.
6. A patient with a family history of breast cancer tests positive for a BRCA1
mutation. This mutation is associated with which mechanism of cancer?
A. Activation of proto-oncogenes
B. Loss of tumor suppressor function
C. Increased angiogenesis
,D. Enhanced DNA repair
Answer: B. Loss of tumor suppressor function
Rationale: BRCA1 is a tumor suppressor gene involved in DNA repair. Mutations
in BRCA1 result in loss of function, increasing the risk of breast and ovarian
cancers due to accumulation of DNA damage.
7. Which type of immunity is mediated by T lymphocytes?
A. Humoral immunity
B. Innate immunity
C. Cell-mediated immunity
D. Passive immunity
Answer: C. Cell-mediated immunity
Rationale: Cell-mediated immunity involves T lymphocytes (T cells) that directly
attack infected cells or coordinate immune responses. Humoral immunity involves
B cells and antibodies.
8. A patient experiences an allergic reaction to penicillin. This is an example of
which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Answer: A. Type I
Rationale: Type I hypersensitivity is IgE-mediated and occurs rapidly after
exposure to allergens such as penicillin. Symptoms include anaphylaxis, urticaria,
and bronchospasm.
9. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is classified as which type of
hypersensitivity?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Answer: C. Type III
Rationale: SLE involves immune complex deposition (Type III hypersensitivity)
leading to tissue damage in multiple organs including skin, kidneys, and joints.
Autoantibodies attack self-antigens.
10. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis experiences joint destruction due to which
hypersensitivity mechanism?
, A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Answer: C. Type III
Rationale: Rheumatoid arthritis is primarily a Type III hypersensitivity disorder
involving immune complex deposition in synovial joints, leading to chronic
inflammation and joint destruction. Type IV involves T-cell mediated responses.
11. A patient with AIDS has a CD4 T-cell count below 200 cells/uL. This places
the patient at risk for which opportunistic infection?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae pneumonia
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
D. Staphylococcus aureus bacteremia
Answer: C. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
Rationale: Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia is an opportunistic infection seen in
AIDS patients with CD4 counts below 200 cells/uL. It is a leading cause of
morbidity in immunocompromised patients.
12. HIV primarily infects which cells?
A. CD8 T lymphocytes
B. B lymphocytes
C. CD4 T lymphocytes
D. Natural killer cells
Answer: C. CD4 T lymphocytes
Rationale: HIV targets CD4 T lymphocytes by binding to the CD4 receptor and co-
receptors (CCR5 or CXCR4). This leads to progressive depletion of CD4 cells and
immunodeficiency.
13. A patient with HIV infection is started on highly active antiretroviral therapy
(HAART). The goal of this therapy is to:
A. Eliminate the virus from the body
B. Increase CD4 count and reduce viral load
C. Prevent transmission to others
D. Cure the infection
Answer: B. Increase CD4 count and reduce viral load
Rationale: HAART aims to suppress HIV replication, reducing viral load to
undetectable levels and allowing immune recovery with increased CD4 counts. It
cannot eliminate the virus.
