BSN 366 HESI RN Exit Exam V1 (Latest Update 2026/2027) Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A - Nightingal
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
BSN 366
HESI RN Exit Exam V1
Latest Update 2026/2027 | Questions and Verified Answers
100% Correct | Grade A - Nightingale 2026/2027
75 5 80% 2026/2027
QUESTIONS SECTIONS PASSING SCORE EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
• Fundamentals of Nursing Care • Maternal & Pediatric Nursing
• Medical-Surgical Nursing • Psychiatric, Community & Leadership
• Pharmacology & Parenteral Therapies
COVER PAGE - 1
BSN 366 HESI RN Exit Exam V1 (Latest Update 2026/2027) Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A - Nightingale 2026/2027
,Section 1: Fundamentals of Nursing Care Questions 1-15
Q1.
A 68-year-old client is admitted with dehydration after 3 days of persistent vomiting. The nurse notes dry
mucous membranes, decreased skin turgor, and orthostatic hypotension. Which assessment finding would the
nurse expect to see next as the body compensates for fluid volume deficit?
A. Tachycardia with weak, thready pulses
B. Bounding peripheral pulses
C. Hypertension with a widened pulse pressure
D. Bradycardia with strong, regular pulses
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
In fluid volume deficit, the body compensates by activating the sympathetic nervous system and
renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, leading to tachycardia and weak pulses as cardiac output falls. Bounding pulses
and hypertension would indicate fluid volume excess, while bradycardia is not a compensatory response to
hypovolemia.
Q2.
During morning rounds, a nurse discovers that an older adult client has a stage 2 pressure injury on the
sacrum measuring 3 cm by 2 cm with partial-thickness skin loss and a visible pink wound bed. Which
intervention should the nurse prioritize to promote healing?
A. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing to maintain a moist wound environment
B. Perform sharp debridement at the bedside every 24 hours
C. Place the client in a semi-Fowler position for 22 hours daily
D. Irrigate the wound with full-strength hydrogen peroxide twice daily
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Stage 2 pressure injuries with partial-thickness loss benefit from moist wound healing provided by hydrocolloid or
transparent film dressings. Sharp debridement is unnecessary for viable pink tissue, prolonged semi-Fowler positioning
increases sacral pressure, and hydrogen peroxide is cytotoxic to granulation tissue.
Q3.
A postoperative client has a Jackson-Pratt drain in place following an abdominal hysterectomy. The nurse
observes 150 mL of serosanguineous drainage in the first 8 hours, and the bulb is fully expanded. Which
action is most appropriate?
A. Compress the bulb to reestablish suction and resecure the plug
B. Remove the drain immediately and notify the surgeon
C. Irrigate the tubing with 10 mL of sterile normal saline
D. Clamp the tubing for 30 minutes to allow drainage to accumulate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A fully expanded JP bulb has lost suction; compressing it reestablains negative pressure to promote drainage.
Removing the drain prematurely risks complications, irrigating without an order is contraindicated, and clamping
increases the risk of fluid accumulation and infection.
, Q4.
A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction. The client reports
nausea and abdominal distention, and the nurse notes that the suction canister is empty. Which is the nurse's
first action?
A. Check the tubing for kinks and verify the suction setting
B. Irrigate the NG tube with 30 mL of sterile water
C. Remove the NG tube and insert a new one
D. Administer an antiemetic and reassess in 30 minutes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
When an NG tube on suction fails to drain, the first step is to inspect the entire system for kinks, verify connections, and
confirm the suction regulator is functioning. Irrigation requires a provider order, removing the tube is premature, and
medicating without addressing the mechanical issue delays resolution.
Q5.
A client with chronic heart failure is being discharged home on furosemide 40 mg daily. The nurse provides
dietary teaching and emphasizes which food choice to limit?
A. Canned chicken noodle soup and dill pickles
B. Fresh strawberries and unsalted almonds
C. Grilled chicken breast and steamed broccoli
D. Baked sweet potato with cinnamon
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Clients on loop diuretics for heart failure must limit sodium intake; canned soups and pickles are extremely high in
sodium. Fresh fruits, unsalted nuts, grilled lean proteins, and plain vegetables are low-sodium choices appropriate for
this client.
Q6.
A nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of enoxaparin 40 mg to a client. After selecting the
appropriate site, which technique demonstrates best practice?
A. Pinch the skin fold, insert the needle at a 90-degree angle, and do not aspirate
B. Stretch the skin taut, insert at a 45-degree angle, and aspirate before injecting
C. Pinch the skin fold, insert at a 45-degree angle, and massage the site afterward
D. Stretch the skin taut, insert at a 90-degree angle, and aspirate before injecting
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin is administered by pinching the skin fold, inserting at 90 degrees with a
short needle, and never aspirating or massaging to prevent bruising and hematoma formation. Aspiration and massage
are contraindicated with LMWH.
BSN 366 HESI RN Exit Exam V1 (Latest Update 2026/2027) Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A - Nightingale 2026/2027
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
BSN 366
HESI RN Exit Exam V1
Latest Update 2026/2027 | Questions and Verified Answers
100% Correct | Grade A - Nightingale 2026/2027
75 5 80% 2026/2027
QUESTIONS SECTIONS PASSING SCORE EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
• Fundamentals of Nursing Care • Maternal & Pediatric Nursing
• Medical-Surgical Nursing • Psychiatric, Community & Leadership
• Pharmacology & Parenteral Therapies
COVER PAGE - 1
BSN 366 HESI RN Exit Exam V1 (Latest Update 2026/2027) Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A - Nightingale 2026/2027
,Section 1: Fundamentals of Nursing Care Questions 1-15
Q1.
A 68-year-old client is admitted with dehydration after 3 days of persistent vomiting. The nurse notes dry
mucous membranes, decreased skin turgor, and orthostatic hypotension. Which assessment finding would the
nurse expect to see next as the body compensates for fluid volume deficit?
A. Tachycardia with weak, thready pulses
B. Bounding peripheral pulses
C. Hypertension with a widened pulse pressure
D. Bradycardia with strong, regular pulses
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
In fluid volume deficit, the body compensates by activating the sympathetic nervous system and
renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, leading to tachycardia and weak pulses as cardiac output falls. Bounding pulses
and hypertension would indicate fluid volume excess, while bradycardia is not a compensatory response to
hypovolemia.
Q2.
During morning rounds, a nurse discovers that an older adult client has a stage 2 pressure injury on the
sacrum measuring 3 cm by 2 cm with partial-thickness skin loss and a visible pink wound bed. Which
intervention should the nurse prioritize to promote healing?
A. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing to maintain a moist wound environment
B. Perform sharp debridement at the bedside every 24 hours
C. Place the client in a semi-Fowler position for 22 hours daily
D. Irrigate the wound with full-strength hydrogen peroxide twice daily
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Stage 2 pressure injuries with partial-thickness loss benefit from moist wound healing provided by hydrocolloid or
transparent film dressings. Sharp debridement is unnecessary for viable pink tissue, prolonged semi-Fowler positioning
increases sacral pressure, and hydrogen peroxide is cytotoxic to granulation tissue.
Q3.
A postoperative client has a Jackson-Pratt drain in place following an abdominal hysterectomy. The nurse
observes 150 mL of serosanguineous drainage in the first 8 hours, and the bulb is fully expanded. Which
action is most appropriate?
A. Compress the bulb to reestablish suction and resecure the plug
B. Remove the drain immediately and notify the surgeon
C. Irrigate the tubing with 10 mL of sterile normal saline
D. Clamp the tubing for 30 minutes to allow drainage to accumulate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A fully expanded JP bulb has lost suction; compressing it reestablains negative pressure to promote drainage.
Removing the drain prematurely risks complications, irrigating without an order is contraindicated, and clamping
increases the risk of fluid accumulation and infection.
, Q4.
A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction. The client reports
nausea and abdominal distention, and the nurse notes that the suction canister is empty. Which is the nurse's
first action?
A. Check the tubing for kinks and verify the suction setting
B. Irrigate the NG tube with 30 mL of sterile water
C. Remove the NG tube and insert a new one
D. Administer an antiemetic and reassess in 30 minutes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
When an NG tube on suction fails to drain, the first step is to inspect the entire system for kinks, verify connections, and
confirm the suction regulator is functioning. Irrigation requires a provider order, removing the tube is premature, and
medicating without addressing the mechanical issue delays resolution.
Q5.
A client with chronic heart failure is being discharged home on furosemide 40 mg daily. The nurse provides
dietary teaching and emphasizes which food choice to limit?
A. Canned chicken noodle soup and dill pickles
B. Fresh strawberries and unsalted almonds
C. Grilled chicken breast and steamed broccoli
D. Baked sweet potato with cinnamon
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Clients on loop diuretics for heart failure must limit sodium intake; canned soups and pickles are extremely high in
sodium. Fresh fruits, unsalted nuts, grilled lean proteins, and plain vegetables are low-sodium choices appropriate for
this client.
Q6.
A nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of enoxaparin 40 mg to a client. After selecting the
appropriate site, which technique demonstrates best practice?
A. Pinch the skin fold, insert the needle at a 90-degree angle, and do not aspirate
B. Stretch the skin taut, insert at a 45-degree angle, and aspirate before injecting
C. Pinch the skin fold, insert at a 45-degree angle, and massage the site afterward
D. Stretch the skin taut, insert at a 90-degree angle, and aspirate before injecting
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin is administered by pinching the skin fold, inserting at 90 degrees with a
short needle, and never aspirating or massaging to prevent bruising and hematoma formation. Aspiration and massage
are contraindicated with LMWH.
BSN 366 HESI RN Exit Exam V1 (Latest Update 2026/2027) Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A - Nightingale 2026/2027
