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PN EVOLVE HESI FUNDAMENTALS EXAM 2026/2027 | 180+ Latest Questions with Correct Answers | LPN HESI Review | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded

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Pass your LPN Evolve HESI Fundamentals exam on the first attempt with this comprehensive test bank featuring 180+ latest correctly answered questions. This A+ Graded resource contains real exam-style questions covering all essential PN nursing fundamentals including basic nursing skills, infection control, patient safety, mobility and immobility, nutrition and hydration, elimination, oxygenation, fluid and electrolyte balance, medication administration, and patient education. Each question includes correct answers aligned with current Evolve HESI standards. Perfect for LPN/LVN students preparing for the HESI Fundamentals specialty exam. With our Pass Guarantee, you can study with confidence. Download your complete PN Evolve HESI Fundamentals Exam Prep instantly!

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S T U D Y G U I D E / H E S I P N / L P N P R O C T O R E D E X A M I N AT I O N




PN Fundamentals of Nursing
Evolve HESI Real Exams
Questions Review Latest
2026/2027

Comprehensive study guide with 180 verified practice questions covering
safe and effective care, health promotion, psychosocial integrity, basic care
and comfort, pharmacological and parenteral therapies, reduction of risk
potential, and physiological adaptation aligned with the 2026-2027 HESI PN
Fundamentals exam blueprint and NCLEX-PN standards.




180 Questions with Verified Answers and Rationales
LPN/PN Scope of Practice Focus | Priority Setting
Aligned with NCLEX-PN Standards | 2026-2027 Edition




E V O LV E L P N H E S I F U N D A M E N TA L S B E S T E X A M P R E P T E S T B A N K

,PN Fundamentals of Nursing HESI Exam 2026/2027 | Study Guide 180 Questions with Verified Answers




PN FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING EVOLVE HESI
REAL EXAMS QUESTIONS REVIEW LATEST
2026/2027
Evolve LPN HESI Fundamentals Best Exam Prep Test Bank - 180 Questions with Verified Answers




Section 1: Safe, Effective Care Environment

Q1: A practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client who refuses a scheduled blood transfusion due to religious beliefs.
Which action should the PN take first?
A. Administer the transfusion immediately to prevent harm
B. Respect the client's refusal and document the refusal [CORRECT]
C. Restrain the client and administer the transfusion
D. Call the client's family to override the refusal
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The principle of autonomy requires the nurse to respect a competent client's right to refuse treatment, including blood transfusions.
The PN should respect the refusal, document it, and notify the healthcare provider. Administering against the client's will violates autonomy
and constitutes battery. Restraining the client and calling family to override the decision are also violations of client rights.


Q2: A PN is preparing to delegate vital signs to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which statement by the PN
demonstrates understanding of the Five Rights of Delegation?
A. 'Please check the client's blood pressure and report any abnormalities.'
B. 'I need you to take vital signs on all clients and let me know if anything seems off.'
C. 'Please measure Mr. Smith's temperature, pulse, respirations, blood pressure, and oxygen saturation and report
the values to me promptly.' [CORRECT]
D. 'Check the vital signs and administer pain medication if the client asks.'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Five Rights of Delegation include the right task, circumstance, person, direction/communication, and supervision/evaluation.
The PN must clearly communicate specific tasks with detailed instructions. Providing specific vital signs to measure on a specific client with
clear reporting expectations addresses the right direction/communication. Asking the UAP to report abnormalities without specifying values is
vague, and asking the UAP to administer medication is beyond the UAP scope of practice.


Q3: A PN is caring for a client who is receiving contact precautions for MRSA. Which personal protective
equipment (PPE) should the PN don before entering the client's room?
A. N95 respirator only
B. Gown and gloves [CORRECT]
C. Surgical mask and eye protection
D. Gown, gloves, and N95 respirator
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Contact precautions require gown and gloves for all client contact and contact with the client's environment. MRSA is spread
through direct contact, so gown and gloves are sufficient. N95 respirators are required for airborne precautions (TB, measles, varicella).



Page 1

,PN Fundamentals of Nursing HESI Exam 2026/2027 | Study Guide 180 Questions with Verified Answers



Surgical masks are used for droplet precautions. The correct PPE donning sequence is gown first, then mask or respirator, then eye protection,
then gloves.


Q4: A fire is discovered in the medication room on the nursing unit. Using the RACE acronym, which action should
the PN take first?
A. Extinguish the fire using the nearest fire extinguisher
B. Rescue clients in immediate danger by moving them to safety [CORRECT]
C. Activate the fire alarm system
D. Contain the fire by closing all doors and windows
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: RACE stands for Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish. The first priority is always to rescue and remove clients in immediate danger.
Rescuing clients takes priority over activating the alarm, containing the fire, or extinguishing the fire. The correct sequence ensures human life
is protected first, which aligns with the fundamental nursing priority of safety.


Q5: A PN is removing PPE after caring for a client in contact precautions. In which order should the PN remove the
equipment?
A. Gown, mask, eye protection, gloves
B. Gloves, eye protection, gown, mask [CORRECT]
C. Mask, gown, eye protection, gloves
D. Eye protection, gloves, gown, mask
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct order for PPE removal (doffing) is gloves first (most contaminated), then eye protection, then gown, then mask last.
Gloves are removed first because they are the most contaminated and their removal prevents self-contamination when removing other items.
This sequence follows CDC guidelines for preventing transmission of microorganisms during PPE removal.


Q6: A PN is caring for a client who has a new order for restraints. Which action is most important for the PN to
take before applying the restraints?
A. Obtain the client's verbal agreement to the restraint use
B. Ensure a physician's order is obtained and documented [CORRECT]
C. Administer a sedative to calm the client first
D. Apply the restraints tightly to prevent escape
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Restraints require a physician's order and must be used as a last resort. The PN must verify the order exists before applying
restraints. Verbal agreement is preferred but the order is the legal requirement. Sedation should not be used solely to facilitate restraint use.
Restraints must be applied with enough room for two fingers to slide under them, not tightly.


Q7: Which task is within the scope of practice for a PN/LVN?
A. Performing the initial admission assessment
B. Administering oral medications to stable clients [CORRECT]
C. Developing the primary nursing diagnosis
D. Initiating IV therapy independently
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: PNs/LVNs can administer oral, intramuscular, and subcutaneous medications to stable clients with predictable outcomes. The initial
admission assessment, developing nursing diagnoses, and initiating IV therapy are typically within the RN scope of practice. PNs reinforce
teaching, provide basic wound care, and collect data, but the scope limitations vary by state.




Page 2

, PN Fundamentals of Nursing HESI Exam 2026/2027 | Study Guide 180 Questions with Verified Answers



Q8: A PN witnesses a client signing an informed consent form for surgery. Which statement about the PN's role in
informed consent is correct?
A. The PN explains the surgical procedure and risks to the client
B. The PN witnesses the client's signature and verifies the client appears to understand [CORRECT]
C. The PN is responsible for obtaining the informed consent
D. The PN determines whether the client has the capacity to consent
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The PN's role in informed consent is to witness the client signing the form and verify the client appears to understand what they are
signing. The physician or advanced practice provider is responsible for explaining the procedure, obtaining consent, and determining the
client's capacity to consent. The PN serves as a witness, not the obtainer of consent.


Q9: A client has an advance directive that includes a Do-Not-Resuscitate (DNR) order. The client's family demands
that everything be done to save the client. Which action should the PN take?
A. Follow the family's wishes and begin resuscitation
B. Notify the charge nurse and the healthcare provider of the conflict [CORRECT]
C. Remove the DNR order from the chart
D. Explain to the family that their wishes cannot be honored
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When there is a conflict between the client's advance directive and the family's wishes, the PN should notify the charge nurse and
healthcare provider to resolve the situation. The advance directive represents the client's autonomous wishes, and the PN cannot unilaterally
override it or remove it. The healthcare provider and ethics committee may need to mediate the conflict.


Q10: A PN accidentally administers the wrong medication to a client. The client is not harmed. Which action should
the PN take first?
A. Document the error in the client's medical record
B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
C. Complete an incident report
D. Reassess the client's condition and vital signs [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The first priority after a medication error is to assess the client for any adverse effects, including checking vital signs. Client safety
is always the first priority. After assessment, the PN should notify the healthcare provider, then document the error and complete an incident
report. The incident report is a quality improvement tool, not a substitute for client assessment and provider notification.


Q11: A PN is caring for a client diagnosed with tuberculosis. Which type of transmission-based precautions should
the PN implement?
A. Contact precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Airborne precautions [CORRECT]
D. Standard precautions only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tuberculosis requires airborne precautions, including placement in a negative-pressure room and use of an N95 respirator mask.
TB is transmitted via small airborne droplet nuclei that remain suspended in the air. Contact precautions are for organisms spread by direct
contact (MRSA, C. diff). Droplet precautions are for larger respiratory droplets (influenza, pertussis). Standard precautions apply to all clients
but are insufficient alone for TB.


Q12: A PN needs to use a fire extinguisher to put out a small fire. Using the PASS acronym, which action should the
PN perform first?




Page 3

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