HESI LPN-ADN HESI ENTRANCE EXAM
(2026/2027) MOBILITY EXAMS GRADED A
100% VERIFIED
1.The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who had a femoral artery stent placed
4 hours ago. Which assessment finding requires immediate notification of
the registered nurse?
A) Capillary refill of 2 seconds in the affected extremity
B) Complaints of mild groin discomfort
C) Absence of dorsalis pedis pulse on the affected side
D) Small amount of serosanguineous drainage at the insertion site
Correct Answer: C) Absence of dorsalis pedis pulse on the affected side
Rationale:
1. Absence of a distal pulse indicates possible arterial occlusion,
thrombosis, or hematoma formation compromising blood flow.
2. This is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention to prevent
limb ischemia or loss.
3. Mild groin discomfort, capillary refill of 2 seconds, and small amounts of
drainage are expected findings post-procedure.
1. The nurse is assessing a client with suspected deep vein thrombosis
(DVT) in the left lower extremity. Which clinical manifestation
supports this diagnosis?
,A) Coolness and pallor of the left foot
B) Unilateral leg swelling and warmth
C) Bilateral ankle edema with pitting
D) Diminished femoral pulse on the left side
Correct Answer: B) Unilateral leg swelling and warmth
Rationale:
1. Classic signs of DVT include unilateral swelling, warmth, redness, and
pain in the affected extremity.
2. Coolness and pallor are more indicative of arterial insufficiency.
3. Bilateral edema suggests a systemic issue such as heart failure rather
than a localized DVT.
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2. A client is 2 days post-operative following a coronary artery bypass
graft (CABG). The nurse notes the client’s telemetry shows sinus
tachycardia with frequent premature ventricular contractions
(PVCs). Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Administer amiodarone as prescribed.
B) Assess the client’s oxygen saturation and pain level.
C) Increase the intravenous fluid rate.
D) Notify the health care provider immediately.
Correct Answer: B) Assess the client’s oxygen saturation and pain level.
, Rationale:
1. PVCs and tachycardia in a post-CABG client may be triggered by
hypoxia, pain, anxiety, or electrolyte imbalances.
2. The nurse must first assess for reversible causes before initiating
pharmacological interventions.
3. Administering medications or notifying the provider without a thorough
assessment is premature and could lead to inappropriate treatment.
3. The LPN/LVN is reinforcing teaching for a client prescribed warfarin
(Coumadin) after mechanical valve replacement. Which statement
by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A) “I will avoid eating large amounts of leafy green vegetables.”
B) “I will take my medication at the same time every day.”
C) “I can take ibuprofen for my occasional headaches.”
D) “I will report any unusual bruising or bleeding to my doctor.”
Correct Answer: C) “I can take ibuprofen for my occasional headaches.”
Rationale:
1. Ibuprofen and other NSAIDs increase the risk of bleeding when taken
with warfarin.
2. Clients should use acetaminophen for pain relief and consult their
provider before taking any new medications.
3. Consistent daily dosing, avoiding large amounts of vitamin K-rich foods,
and reporting bleeding are all appropriate statements.
(2026/2027) MOBILITY EXAMS GRADED A
100% VERIFIED
1.The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who had a femoral artery stent placed
4 hours ago. Which assessment finding requires immediate notification of
the registered nurse?
A) Capillary refill of 2 seconds in the affected extremity
B) Complaints of mild groin discomfort
C) Absence of dorsalis pedis pulse on the affected side
D) Small amount of serosanguineous drainage at the insertion site
Correct Answer: C) Absence of dorsalis pedis pulse on the affected side
Rationale:
1. Absence of a distal pulse indicates possible arterial occlusion,
thrombosis, or hematoma formation compromising blood flow.
2. This is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention to prevent
limb ischemia or loss.
3. Mild groin discomfort, capillary refill of 2 seconds, and small amounts of
drainage are expected findings post-procedure.
1. The nurse is assessing a client with suspected deep vein thrombosis
(DVT) in the left lower extremity. Which clinical manifestation
supports this diagnosis?
,A) Coolness and pallor of the left foot
B) Unilateral leg swelling and warmth
C) Bilateral ankle edema with pitting
D) Diminished femoral pulse on the left side
Correct Answer: B) Unilateral leg swelling and warmth
Rationale:
1. Classic signs of DVT include unilateral swelling, warmth, redness, and
pain in the affected extremity.
2. Coolness and pallor are more indicative of arterial insufficiency.
3. Bilateral edema suggests a systemic issue such as heart failure rather
than a localized DVT.
2 | Page
2. A client is 2 days post-operative following a coronary artery bypass
graft (CABG). The nurse notes the client’s telemetry shows sinus
tachycardia with frequent premature ventricular contractions
(PVCs). Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Administer amiodarone as prescribed.
B) Assess the client’s oxygen saturation and pain level.
C) Increase the intravenous fluid rate.
D) Notify the health care provider immediately.
Correct Answer: B) Assess the client’s oxygen saturation and pain level.
, Rationale:
1. PVCs and tachycardia in a post-CABG client may be triggered by
hypoxia, pain, anxiety, or electrolyte imbalances.
2. The nurse must first assess for reversible causes before initiating
pharmacological interventions.
3. Administering medications or notifying the provider without a thorough
assessment is premature and could lead to inappropriate treatment.
3. The LPN/LVN is reinforcing teaching for a client prescribed warfarin
(Coumadin) after mechanical valve replacement. Which statement
by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A) “I will avoid eating large amounts of leafy green vegetables.”
B) “I will take my medication at the same time every day.”
C) “I can take ibuprofen for my occasional headaches.”
D) “I will report any unusual bruising or bleeding to my doctor.”
Correct Answer: C) “I can take ibuprofen for my occasional headaches.”
Rationale:
1. Ibuprofen and other NSAIDs increase the risk of bleeding when taken
with warfarin.
2. Clients should use acetaminophen for pain relief and consult their
provider before taking any new medications.
3. Consistent daily dosing, avoiding large amounts of vitamin K-rich foods,
and reporting bleeding are all appropriate statements.
