Fitzgerald Pre-Test Exam Questions with
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Question 1
Assessment of the optic disc is a component of the evaluation of which cranial nerve?
A) Cranial Nerve I (Olfactory)
B) Cranial Nerve II (Optic)
C) Cranial Nerve III (Oculomotor)
D) Cranial Nerve IV (Trochlear)
Answer: B
Rationale: The optic disc is assessed during evaluation of Cranial Nerve II (Optic nerve).
Fundoscopic examination allows visualization of the optic disc, which provides
information about intracranial pressure, glaucoma, and other neurologic conditions .
Question 2
A 62-year-old woman with a 20-year history of hypertension reports intermittent use of
antihypertensive medications, stating, "I feel better without the medications." Physical
examination reveals a PMI with a downward and lateral shift as well as a Grade II/VI
holosystolic murmur with radiation to the axilla. This patient's health history is most
likely to include a report of:
A) Syncopal episodes
B) Episodes of chest pain at rest
C) Dyspnea with exertion
D) Vertigo
Answer: C
Rationale: The physical exam findings (displaced PMI, holosystolic murmur radiating to
the axilla) are consistent with mitral regurgitation, likely secondary to left ventricular
,hypertrophy from poorly controlled hypertension. Dyspnea with exertion is the most
common symptom of heart failure from chronic uncontrolled hypertension .
Question 3
A new patient presents for a check-up. He has no complaints, but admits that he's been
smoking 2 packs a day for 40 years. Spirometric assessment reveals an FEV1/FVC ratio of
67%. Which additional finding would be consistent with a diagnosis of COPD?
A) Markedly increased chest AP diameter
B) Pleuritic chest pain
C) FEV1/FVC ratio < 0.70
D) FEV1 improving by 50% after SABA treatment
Answer: C
Rationale: A post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 0.70 is diagnostic of
airflow obstruction consistent with COPD. Barrel chest (increased AP diameter) is a later
finding in COPD. Pleuritic chest pain is not typical of COPD .
Question 4
At what age will an infant most likely cry when being held down on the examination
table?
A) 3-4 months
B) 5-6 months
C) 7-8 months
D) 9-10 months
Answer: C
Rationale: Stranger anxiety typically develops around 7-8 months of age. Infants at this
age will often cry when being held down by an unfamiliar person on the examination
table. This is a normal developmental milestone .
,Question 5
You examine a 14-year-old girl at Tanner stage 2-3 with complaints of being the shortest
in her class. What is the appropriate recommendation?
A) Referral to the endocrinologist
B) That she is likely near her adult height
C) That her growth spurt will start soon
D) That bone age be determined
Answer: D
Rationale: A bone age determination is the appropriate next step to evaluate growth
potential. The growth spurt typically occurs at Tanner stage 3-4 in girls. A bone age
study can help determine remaining growth potential .
Question 6
At what age does the NP recognize that temper tantrums typically begin in anticipatory
guidance?
A) 10-12 months
B) 14-16 months
C) 18-20 months
D) 3 years
Answer: A
Rationale: Temper tantrums typically begin around 10-12 months as toddlers develop
autonomy and test boundaries. Reinforce that tantrums are normal but consistency in
response is key .
Question 7
A 3-year-old child will be understood by strangers approximately what percentage of
the time?
A) 100%
B) 75%
, C) 50%
D) 25%
Answer: B
Rationale: At age 3, a child's speech is approximately 75% intelligible to strangers. By
age 4, intelligibility reaches 100%. Delayed speech requires evaluation .
Question 8
In a community undergoing a disaster, the use of select vaccines will be prioritized.
Match the type of disaster with the priority vaccine.
1. Uninjured adults and children evacuated to a crowded group setting:
2. Adults with multiple deep lacerations from flying debris:
3. A community exposed to unsafe water supply after a hurricane:
A) Immunization against tetanus
B) Immunization against influenza
C) Immunization against Hep A
Answer: 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
Rationale: In crowded group settings, influenza vaccine is prioritized. For deep
lacerations, tetanus immunization is appropriate. Following hurricane exposure to
unsafe water, Hepatitis A immunization is prioritized .
Question 9
You see a 14-year-old girl at Tanner stage 2-3 with complaints of being the shortest in
her class. You advise:
A) Referral to the endocrinologist
B) That she is likely near her adult height
C) That her growth spurt will start soon
D) That bone age be determined
Answer: D
100% Verified Solutions | New Version |
Guaranteed Pass
Question 1
Assessment of the optic disc is a component of the evaluation of which cranial nerve?
A) Cranial Nerve I (Olfactory)
B) Cranial Nerve II (Optic)
C) Cranial Nerve III (Oculomotor)
D) Cranial Nerve IV (Trochlear)
Answer: B
Rationale: The optic disc is assessed during evaluation of Cranial Nerve II (Optic nerve).
Fundoscopic examination allows visualization of the optic disc, which provides
information about intracranial pressure, glaucoma, and other neurologic conditions .
Question 2
A 62-year-old woman with a 20-year history of hypertension reports intermittent use of
antihypertensive medications, stating, "I feel better without the medications." Physical
examination reveals a PMI with a downward and lateral shift as well as a Grade II/VI
holosystolic murmur with radiation to the axilla. This patient's health history is most
likely to include a report of:
A) Syncopal episodes
B) Episodes of chest pain at rest
C) Dyspnea with exertion
D) Vertigo
Answer: C
Rationale: The physical exam findings (displaced PMI, holosystolic murmur radiating to
the axilla) are consistent with mitral regurgitation, likely secondary to left ventricular
,hypertrophy from poorly controlled hypertension. Dyspnea with exertion is the most
common symptom of heart failure from chronic uncontrolled hypertension .
Question 3
A new patient presents for a check-up. He has no complaints, but admits that he's been
smoking 2 packs a day for 40 years. Spirometric assessment reveals an FEV1/FVC ratio of
67%. Which additional finding would be consistent with a diagnosis of COPD?
A) Markedly increased chest AP diameter
B) Pleuritic chest pain
C) FEV1/FVC ratio < 0.70
D) FEV1 improving by 50% after SABA treatment
Answer: C
Rationale: A post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 0.70 is diagnostic of
airflow obstruction consistent with COPD. Barrel chest (increased AP diameter) is a later
finding in COPD. Pleuritic chest pain is not typical of COPD .
Question 4
At what age will an infant most likely cry when being held down on the examination
table?
A) 3-4 months
B) 5-6 months
C) 7-8 months
D) 9-10 months
Answer: C
Rationale: Stranger anxiety typically develops around 7-8 months of age. Infants at this
age will often cry when being held down by an unfamiliar person on the examination
table. This is a normal developmental milestone .
,Question 5
You examine a 14-year-old girl at Tanner stage 2-3 with complaints of being the shortest
in her class. What is the appropriate recommendation?
A) Referral to the endocrinologist
B) That she is likely near her adult height
C) That her growth spurt will start soon
D) That bone age be determined
Answer: D
Rationale: A bone age determination is the appropriate next step to evaluate growth
potential. The growth spurt typically occurs at Tanner stage 3-4 in girls. A bone age
study can help determine remaining growth potential .
Question 6
At what age does the NP recognize that temper tantrums typically begin in anticipatory
guidance?
A) 10-12 months
B) 14-16 months
C) 18-20 months
D) 3 years
Answer: A
Rationale: Temper tantrums typically begin around 10-12 months as toddlers develop
autonomy and test boundaries. Reinforce that tantrums are normal but consistency in
response is key .
Question 7
A 3-year-old child will be understood by strangers approximately what percentage of
the time?
A) 100%
B) 75%
, C) 50%
D) 25%
Answer: B
Rationale: At age 3, a child's speech is approximately 75% intelligible to strangers. By
age 4, intelligibility reaches 100%. Delayed speech requires evaluation .
Question 8
In a community undergoing a disaster, the use of select vaccines will be prioritized.
Match the type of disaster with the priority vaccine.
1. Uninjured adults and children evacuated to a crowded group setting:
2. Adults with multiple deep lacerations from flying debris:
3. A community exposed to unsafe water supply after a hurricane:
A) Immunization against tetanus
B) Immunization against influenza
C) Immunization against Hep A
Answer: 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
Rationale: In crowded group settings, influenza vaccine is prioritized. For deep
lacerations, tetanus immunization is appropriate. Following hurricane exposure to
unsafe water, Hepatitis A immunization is prioritized .
Question 9
You see a 14-year-old girl at Tanner stage 2-3 with complaints of being the shortest in
her class. You advise:
A) Referral to the endocrinologist
B) That she is likely near her adult height
C) That her growth spurt will start soon
D) That bone age be determined
Answer: D
