NUR 242 MEDICAL SURGICAL EXAM / APPROVED NUR 242
MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING CONCEPTS EXAM TESTBANK
2026/2027 EXAM 1, EXAM 2 EXAM 3 & EXAM 4 EACH EXAM
CONTAINS COMPLETE ACCURATE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (100% CORRECT
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) LATEST UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION
|GUARANTEED SUCCESS A+ |CURRENTLY UPDATED STUDY
GUIDE INCLUDED |FULL REVISED EXAM
NUR 242 MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING CONCEPTS EXAM 1
1. A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which
assessment finding indicates a therapeutic response to this
medication?
A. Decreased peripheral edema and weight loss
B. Increased blood pressure and heart rate
C. Decreased urine output and crackles in lungs
D. Increased serum potassium and sodium levels
CORRECT ANSWER: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid
overload in heart failure. A therapeutic response is evidenced by
decreased peripheral edema, weight loss, and improved breathing as
fluid is excreted. Option B is incorrect because furosemide decreases
blood pressure. Option C indicates worsening condition. Option D is
incorrect because furosemide can cause hypokalemia and
hyponatremia.
,2. The nurse is caring for a patient with acute pancreatitis. Which
laboratory value is most specific for this diagnosis?
A. Elevated serum amylase
B. Elevated serum lipase
C. Elevated blood glucose
D. Decreased serum calcium
CORRECT ANSWER: B
Rationale: Serum lipase is more specific and sensitive for acute
pancreatitis than amylase. It remains elevated longer and is not
affected by renal function or salivary gland issues. Option A can be
elevated but is less specific. Option C and D are secondary findings
but not diagnostic.
3. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has
an arterial blood gas (ABG) result of pH 7.32, PaCO2 58 mm Hg,
and HCO3- 30 mEq/L. The nurse interprets this as:
A. Metabolic acidosis, uncompensated
B. Respiratory acidosis, partially compensated
C. Respiratory acidosis, fully compensated
D. Metabolic alkalosis, partially compensated
CORRECT ANSWER: B
Rationale: The pH is low (acidosis), and the PaCO2 is elevated,
indicating a respiratory cause. The HCO3- is elevated (30 mEq/L)
,above normal (22-26), indicating renal compensation. Since the pH
is still abnormal, it is partially compensated.
4. A patient is receiving a blood transfusion. Fifteen minutes after the
start of the transfusion, the patient reports chills and low back pain.
What is the priority nursing action?
A. Slow the infusion rate and monitor vital signs
B. Stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider
C. Administer an antihistamine as prescribed
D. Increase the infusion rate to complete the transfusion quickly
CORRECT ANSWER: B
Rationale: Chills and low back pain are classic signs of a hemolytic
transfusion reaction. The priority is to stop the transfusion
immediately to prevent further complications. Options A and D are
incorrect as they would worsen the reaction. Option C is not the
priority and may be done after stopping the transfusion.
5. Which clinical manifestation is most indicative of a pulmonary
embolism?
A. Hemoptysis and fever
B. Sudden onset of pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea
C. Bilateral crackles and peripheral edema
D. Dry cough and gradual onset of fatigue
, CORRECT ANSWER: B
Rationale: Pulmonary embolism (PE) typically presents with a
sudden onset of pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, and tachypnea.
Hemoptysis may occur but is not the most indicative. Option C
suggests heart failure, and Option D suggests a more chronic process.
6. The nurse is preparing a patient for a colonoscopy. Which
instruction is essential for the patient to follow?
A. Take all oral medications as usual on the day of the procedure
B. Consume a clear liquid diet for 24 hours before the procedure
C. Drink a barium sulfate solution the evening before the procedure
D. Avoid all food and fluids for 12 hours before the procedure
CORRECT ANSWER: B
Rationale: A clear liquid diet is required 24 hours before a
colonoscopy to ensure the bowel is clean. Option A is incorrect
because some medications (like anticoagulants or iron) may need to
be held. Option C is for a barium enema, not a colonoscopy. Option
D is not sufficient as a full bowel prep is needed.
7. A patient with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for
hemodialysis. Which medication should the nurse hold on the
morning of dialysis?
A. Calcitriol
B. Phosphate binder
C. Iron supplement
MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING CONCEPTS EXAM TESTBANK
2026/2027 EXAM 1, EXAM 2 EXAM 3 & EXAM 4 EACH EXAM
CONTAINS COMPLETE ACCURATE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (100% CORRECT
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) LATEST UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION
|GUARANTEED SUCCESS A+ |CURRENTLY UPDATED STUDY
GUIDE INCLUDED |FULL REVISED EXAM
NUR 242 MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING CONCEPTS EXAM 1
1. A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which
assessment finding indicates a therapeutic response to this
medication?
A. Decreased peripheral edema and weight loss
B. Increased blood pressure and heart rate
C. Decreased urine output and crackles in lungs
D. Increased serum potassium and sodium levels
CORRECT ANSWER: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid
overload in heart failure. A therapeutic response is evidenced by
decreased peripheral edema, weight loss, and improved breathing as
fluid is excreted. Option B is incorrect because furosemide decreases
blood pressure. Option C indicates worsening condition. Option D is
incorrect because furosemide can cause hypokalemia and
hyponatremia.
,2. The nurse is caring for a patient with acute pancreatitis. Which
laboratory value is most specific for this diagnosis?
A. Elevated serum amylase
B. Elevated serum lipase
C. Elevated blood glucose
D. Decreased serum calcium
CORRECT ANSWER: B
Rationale: Serum lipase is more specific and sensitive for acute
pancreatitis than amylase. It remains elevated longer and is not
affected by renal function or salivary gland issues. Option A can be
elevated but is less specific. Option C and D are secondary findings
but not diagnostic.
3. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has
an arterial blood gas (ABG) result of pH 7.32, PaCO2 58 mm Hg,
and HCO3- 30 mEq/L. The nurse interprets this as:
A. Metabolic acidosis, uncompensated
B. Respiratory acidosis, partially compensated
C. Respiratory acidosis, fully compensated
D. Metabolic alkalosis, partially compensated
CORRECT ANSWER: B
Rationale: The pH is low (acidosis), and the PaCO2 is elevated,
indicating a respiratory cause. The HCO3- is elevated (30 mEq/L)
,above normal (22-26), indicating renal compensation. Since the pH
is still abnormal, it is partially compensated.
4. A patient is receiving a blood transfusion. Fifteen minutes after the
start of the transfusion, the patient reports chills and low back pain.
What is the priority nursing action?
A. Slow the infusion rate and monitor vital signs
B. Stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider
C. Administer an antihistamine as prescribed
D. Increase the infusion rate to complete the transfusion quickly
CORRECT ANSWER: B
Rationale: Chills and low back pain are classic signs of a hemolytic
transfusion reaction. The priority is to stop the transfusion
immediately to prevent further complications. Options A and D are
incorrect as they would worsen the reaction. Option C is not the
priority and may be done after stopping the transfusion.
5. Which clinical manifestation is most indicative of a pulmonary
embolism?
A. Hemoptysis and fever
B. Sudden onset of pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea
C. Bilateral crackles and peripheral edema
D. Dry cough and gradual onset of fatigue
, CORRECT ANSWER: B
Rationale: Pulmonary embolism (PE) typically presents with a
sudden onset of pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, and tachypnea.
Hemoptysis may occur but is not the most indicative. Option C
suggests heart failure, and Option D suggests a more chronic process.
6. The nurse is preparing a patient for a colonoscopy. Which
instruction is essential for the patient to follow?
A. Take all oral medications as usual on the day of the procedure
B. Consume a clear liquid diet for 24 hours before the procedure
C. Drink a barium sulfate solution the evening before the procedure
D. Avoid all food and fluids for 12 hours before the procedure
CORRECT ANSWER: B
Rationale: A clear liquid diet is required 24 hours before a
colonoscopy to ensure the bowel is clean. Option A is incorrect
because some medications (like anticoagulants or iron) may need to
be held. Option C is for a barium enema, not a colonoscopy. Option
D is not sufficient as a full bowel prep is needed.
7. A patient with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for
hemodialysis. Which medication should the nurse hold on the
morning of dialysis?
A. Calcitriol
B. Phosphate binder
C. Iron supplement
