NURS 6675 Week 11 Final Exam | Walden University | 2026/2027
NURS 6675 (NRNP 6675)
Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner
Care Across the Lifespan II
Week 11 Final Exam | Latest (2026/2027) | Verified Answers
100 Questions | 7 Sections | A+ Graded Rationales
Section ('Ethics, Legal Issues, and Professional Practice', 1, 20): Ethics, Legal Issues,
and Professional Practice
Questions 1-20
Q1: A PMHNP is caring for a patient with severe depression who expresses suicidal ideation. The PMHNP
contacts the patient's family to inform them of the risk, believing this action will benefit the patient. Which
ethical principle is the PMHNP primarily demonstrating?
A. Justice
B. Fidelity
C. Beneficence [CORRECT]
D. Autonomy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Beneficence refers to affirmatively acting to benefit another or others, going beyond what is required by law to promote
the well-being of patients. By contacting the family to protect the patient from self-harm, the PMHNP is acting in a manner intended
to benefit the patient's safety. Justice refers to fair distribution of benefits and burdens, not protective action. Fidelity involves
faithfulness to promises and commitments. Autonomy respects the patient's right to make independent decisions, which in this case is
temporarily overridden by the duty to protect.
Q2: A PMHNP treats all patients equally regardless of their socioeconomic status, insurance type, or
psychiatric diagnosis. This practice best exemplifies which ethical principle?
A. Non-maleficence
B. Justice [CORRECT]
C. Beneficence
D. Veracity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Justice involves the fair and equitable treatment of all patients, ensuring that benefits and burdens are distributed without
discrimination based on socioeconomic status, diagnosis, or background. The scenario specifically describes treating all patients
equally regardless of these factors, which is the hallmark of justice. Non-maleficence is the duty to avoid harm, beneficence is the
duty to actively do good, and veracity is the obligation to tell the truth.
Q3: A PMHNP fails to follow up with a patient who was started on a new antipsychotic medication, and the
patient develops severe extrapyramidal symptoms. Which component of malpractice has been violated?
A. Duty only
B. Duty and breach of duty
1
,NURS 6675 Week 11 Final Exam | Walden University | 2026/2027
C. Causation and damages only
D. All four elements of malpractice are present [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The four elements of malpractice are: (1) Duty - a client-professional relationship existed; (2) Breach of duty - the
provider's behavior fell below the appropriate standard of care (failure to follow up is a recognized breach); (3) Causation - a causal
link exists between the failure to follow up and the patient developing severe EPS (earlier intervention could have prevented or
mitigated the reaction); and (4) Damages - the patient suffered actual injury from the extrapyramidal symptoms. All four elements
are present in this scenario.
Q4: A patient admitted involuntarily to a psychiatric unit refuses to take prescribed medication. The nurse
practitioner should understand which of the following?
A. Involuntary admission automatically removes the patient's right to refuse treatment
B. The nurse must document the refusal and involve the provider for other routes or a court order [CORRECT]
C. Medication can be administered by force without any legal process
D. The patient loses all legal rights upon involuntary admission
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Involuntary admission does not automatically remove a patient's right to refuse treatment. The nurse must document the
refusal and involve the provider to explore other routes of administration or seek a court order if necessary. This is a critical legal
distinction in psychiatric practice. Patients retain many rights during involuntary holds, including the right to refuse medication in
many jurisdictions. Forced medication typically requires a separate legal process.
Q5: Under HIPAA, which of the following situations permits the release of protected health information
(PHI) without the patient's consent?
A. Marketing purposes
B. Treatment, payment, and operations (TPO) [CORRECT]
C. Sharing information with an employer for job evaluation
D. Disclosing records to a family member out of curiosity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: HIPAA permits the release of protected health information without patient consent for the purposes of treatment, payment,
and healthcare operations (TPO). This exception allows healthcare providers to share information necessary for providing care,
processing insurance claims, and running healthcare operations. Marketing purposes, employer evaluations, and disclosures to curious
family members are not covered by the TPO exception and require patient authorization.
Q6: A PMHNP is precepting a new NP student. Which of the following professionals is NOT qualified to
serve as a clinical preceptor for NP students in clinical diagnosis and medication management?
A. A board-certified Advanced Registered Nurse Practitioner (ARNP)
B. A licensed physician (MD/DO)
C. A licensed clinical social worker (LCSW) [CORRECT]
D. A doctorally prepared nurse practitioner with prescriptive authority
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Licensed clinical social workers (LCSWs) are NOT qualified to precept NP students in clinical diagnosis and medication
management, as their scope of practice does not include these medical functions. Qualified preceptors must be an Advanced
Registered Nurse Practitioner (ARNP) or a physician (MD/DO) who can supervise the full scope of NP clinical practice, including
diagnostic reasoning and pharmacological management. This distinction is critical for ensuring appropriate clinical supervision
standards.
2
, NURS 6675 Week 11 Final Exam | Walden University | 2026/2027
Q7: Which of the following is an exception to the duty of confidentiality in psychiatric-mental health nursing
practice?
A. Sharing patient information for marketing purposes
B. Disclosing information to prevent harm to self or others [CORRECT]
C. Releasing records to satisfy media inquiries
D. Discussing patient details with non-involved colleagues
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Exceptions to confidentiality include the duty to prevent harm to self or others (Tarasoff duty), responding to court
subpoenas and summonses, and payment arrangements. Sharing information for marketing purposes, media inquiries, and casual
discussion with non-involved colleagues are NOT exceptions to confidentiality and represent clear violations. The duty to warn and
protect is one of the most well-established exceptions in psychiatric practice.
Q8: According to the APRN Consensus Model, which statement is most accurate regarding nurse practitioner
scope of practice?
A. NPs may only practice within the single specialty in which they were initially certified
B. The model merges foci to allow NPs to practice across specialties with appropriate education and demonstrated
competency, though state laws may impose restrictions [CORRECT]
C. The model prohibits NPs from any prescriptive authority regardless of education
D. State laws have no impact on the APRN Consensus Model implementation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The APRN Consensus Model merged foci to allow NPs to practice across specialties if they have the appropriate education
and demonstrated competency. However, state laws may impose restrictions on practice authority, creating variation in how the model
is implemented across jurisdictions. The model does not limit NPs to a single specialty forever, nor does it prohibit prescriptive
authority. State laws play a significant role in determining actual practice authority.
Q9: A PMHNP is assessing a patient who has difficulty understanding medication instructions and health
education materials. Which statement best describes the relationship between health literacy and patient
outcomes?
A. Low health literacy is associated with decreased hospitalization rates
B. Low health literacy is associated with higher rates of hospitalization, poor health outcomes, and less frequent use of
preventive services [CORRECT]
C. Health literacy has no significant impact on health outcomes in psychiatric patients
D. Low health literacy primarily affects only physical health conditions, not psychiatric treatment adherence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Low health literacy is well-documented in the literature as being associated with higher rates of hospitalization, poorer
health outcomes, and less frequent use of preventive services. These findings apply across healthcare settings, including psychiatric
care, where understanding medication regimens and treatment plans is essential. Low health literacy is NOT associated with decreased
hospitalization, and it affects both physical and psychiatric treatment outcomes significantly.
Q10: A family of four is living in a single-bedroom apartment with another family because they cannot afford
their own housing. They have moved three times in the past year. This situation best describes which concept?
A. Homelessness under the federal definition
B. Housing instability [CORRECT]
C. Financial exploitation
3
NURS 6675 (NRNP 6675)
Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner
Care Across the Lifespan II
Week 11 Final Exam | Latest (2026/2027) | Verified Answers
100 Questions | 7 Sections | A+ Graded Rationales
Section ('Ethics, Legal Issues, and Professional Practice', 1, 20): Ethics, Legal Issues,
and Professional Practice
Questions 1-20
Q1: A PMHNP is caring for a patient with severe depression who expresses suicidal ideation. The PMHNP
contacts the patient's family to inform them of the risk, believing this action will benefit the patient. Which
ethical principle is the PMHNP primarily demonstrating?
A. Justice
B. Fidelity
C. Beneficence [CORRECT]
D. Autonomy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Beneficence refers to affirmatively acting to benefit another or others, going beyond what is required by law to promote
the well-being of patients. By contacting the family to protect the patient from self-harm, the PMHNP is acting in a manner intended
to benefit the patient's safety. Justice refers to fair distribution of benefits and burdens, not protective action. Fidelity involves
faithfulness to promises and commitments. Autonomy respects the patient's right to make independent decisions, which in this case is
temporarily overridden by the duty to protect.
Q2: A PMHNP treats all patients equally regardless of their socioeconomic status, insurance type, or
psychiatric diagnosis. This practice best exemplifies which ethical principle?
A. Non-maleficence
B. Justice [CORRECT]
C. Beneficence
D. Veracity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Justice involves the fair and equitable treatment of all patients, ensuring that benefits and burdens are distributed without
discrimination based on socioeconomic status, diagnosis, or background. The scenario specifically describes treating all patients
equally regardless of these factors, which is the hallmark of justice. Non-maleficence is the duty to avoid harm, beneficence is the
duty to actively do good, and veracity is the obligation to tell the truth.
Q3: A PMHNP fails to follow up with a patient who was started on a new antipsychotic medication, and the
patient develops severe extrapyramidal symptoms. Which component of malpractice has been violated?
A. Duty only
B. Duty and breach of duty
1
,NURS 6675 Week 11 Final Exam | Walden University | 2026/2027
C. Causation and damages only
D. All four elements of malpractice are present [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The four elements of malpractice are: (1) Duty - a client-professional relationship existed; (2) Breach of duty - the
provider's behavior fell below the appropriate standard of care (failure to follow up is a recognized breach); (3) Causation - a causal
link exists between the failure to follow up and the patient developing severe EPS (earlier intervention could have prevented or
mitigated the reaction); and (4) Damages - the patient suffered actual injury from the extrapyramidal symptoms. All four elements
are present in this scenario.
Q4: A patient admitted involuntarily to a psychiatric unit refuses to take prescribed medication. The nurse
practitioner should understand which of the following?
A. Involuntary admission automatically removes the patient's right to refuse treatment
B. The nurse must document the refusal and involve the provider for other routes or a court order [CORRECT]
C. Medication can be administered by force without any legal process
D. The patient loses all legal rights upon involuntary admission
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Involuntary admission does not automatically remove a patient's right to refuse treatment. The nurse must document the
refusal and involve the provider to explore other routes of administration or seek a court order if necessary. This is a critical legal
distinction in psychiatric practice. Patients retain many rights during involuntary holds, including the right to refuse medication in
many jurisdictions. Forced medication typically requires a separate legal process.
Q5: Under HIPAA, which of the following situations permits the release of protected health information
(PHI) without the patient's consent?
A. Marketing purposes
B. Treatment, payment, and operations (TPO) [CORRECT]
C. Sharing information with an employer for job evaluation
D. Disclosing records to a family member out of curiosity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: HIPAA permits the release of protected health information without patient consent for the purposes of treatment, payment,
and healthcare operations (TPO). This exception allows healthcare providers to share information necessary for providing care,
processing insurance claims, and running healthcare operations. Marketing purposes, employer evaluations, and disclosures to curious
family members are not covered by the TPO exception and require patient authorization.
Q6: A PMHNP is precepting a new NP student. Which of the following professionals is NOT qualified to
serve as a clinical preceptor for NP students in clinical diagnosis and medication management?
A. A board-certified Advanced Registered Nurse Practitioner (ARNP)
B. A licensed physician (MD/DO)
C. A licensed clinical social worker (LCSW) [CORRECT]
D. A doctorally prepared nurse practitioner with prescriptive authority
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Licensed clinical social workers (LCSWs) are NOT qualified to precept NP students in clinical diagnosis and medication
management, as their scope of practice does not include these medical functions. Qualified preceptors must be an Advanced
Registered Nurse Practitioner (ARNP) or a physician (MD/DO) who can supervise the full scope of NP clinical practice, including
diagnostic reasoning and pharmacological management. This distinction is critical for ensuring appropriate clinical supervision
standards.
2
, NURS 6675 Week 11 Final Exam | Walden University | 2026/2027
Q7: Which of the following is an exception to the duty of confidentiality in psychiatric-mental health nursing
practice?
A. Sharing patient information for marketing purposes
B. Disclosing information to prevent harm to self or others [CORRECT]
C. Releasing records to satisfy media inquiries
D. Discussing patient details with non-involved colleagues
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Exceptions to confidentiality include the duty to prevent harm to self or others (Tarasoff duty), responding to court
subpoenas and summonses, and payment arrangements. Sharing information for marketing purposes, media inquiries, and casual
discussion with non-involved colleagues are NOT exceptions to confidentiality and represent clear violations. The duty to warn and
protect is one of the most well-established exceptions in psychiatric practice.
Q8: According to the APRN Consensus Model, which statement is most accurate regarding nurse practitioner
scope of practice?
A. NPs may only practice within the single specialty in which they were initially certified
B. The model merges foci to allow NPs to practice across specialties with appropriate education and demonstrated
competency, though state laws may impose restrictions [CORRECT]
C. The model prohibits NPs from any prescriptive authority regardless of education
D. State laws have no impact on the APRN Consensus Model implementation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The APRN Consensus Model merged foci to allow NPs to practice across specialties if they have the appropriate education
and demonstrated competency. However, state laws may impose restrictions on practice authority, creating variation in how the model
is implemented across jurisdictions. The model does not limit NPs to a single specialty forever, nor does it prohibit prescriptive
authority. State laws play a significant role in determining actual practice authority.
Q9: A PMHNP is assessing a patient who has difficulty understanding medication instructions and health
education materials. Which statement best describes the relationship between health literacy and patient
outcomes?
A. Low health literacy is associated with decreased hospitalization rates
B. Low health literacy is associated with higher rates of hospitalization, poor health outcomes, and less frequent use of
preventive services [CORRECT]
C. Health literacy has no significant impact on health outcomes in psychiatric patients
D. Low health literacy primarily affects only physical health conditions, not psychiatric treatment adherence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Low health literacy is well-documented in the literature as being associated with higher rates of hospitalization, poorer
health outcomes, and less frequent use of preventive services. These findings apply across healthcare settings, including psychiatric
care, where understanding medication regimens and treatment plans is essential. Low health literacy is NOT associated with decreased
hospitalization, and it affects both physical and psychiatric treatment outcomes significantly.
Q10: A family of four is living in a single-bedroom apartment with another family because they cannot afford
their own housing. They have moved three times in the past year. This situation best describes which concept?
A. Homelessness under the federal definition
B. Housing instability [CORRECT]
C. Financial exploitation
3
