EVOLVE HESI MED-SURG II NEWEST 2026/ 2027
ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK| ELSEVIER HESI MED-
SURG II EVOLVE EXAM REVIEW WITH COMPLETE
300 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!)
An emaciated homeless client presents to the emergency department
complaining of a productive cough, with blood-tinged sputum and night
sweats. Which action is most important for the emergency department
triage nurse to take for this client?
A. Initiate airborne infection precautions.
B. Place a surgical mask on the client.
C. Don an isolation gown and latex gloves.
D. Start protective (reverse) isolation precautions. - Correct Answer - A.
Initiate airborne infection precautions.
This client is exhibiting classic symptoms of tuberculosis (TB), and the
client is from a high-risk population for TB. Therefore, airborne
infection precautions, which are indicated for TB, should be used with
this client. Option B is used with droplet precautions. There is no
evidence that option C or D would be warranted at this time.
What is the correct location for placement of the hands for manual chest
compressions during cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on the adult
client?
A. Just above the xiphoid process, on the upper third of the sternum
B. Below the xiphoid process, midway between the sternum and the
umbilicus
pg. 1
,C. Just above the xiphoid process, on the lower third of the sternum
D. Below the xiphoid process, midway between the sternum and the first
rib - Correct Answer - C. Just above the xiphoid process, on the lower
third of the sternum
The correct placement of the hands for chest compressions in CPR is
just above the notch where the ribs meet the sternum on the lower part of
the sternum.
A 25-year-old client was admitted yesterday after a motor vehicle
collision. Neurodiagnostic studies have shown a basal skull fracture in
the middle fossa. Assessment on admission revealed both halo and Battle
signs. Which new symptom indicates that the client is likely to be
experiencing a common life-threatening complication associated with a
basal skull fracture?
A. Bilateral jugular venous distention
B. Oral temperature of 102°F
C. Intermittent focal motor seizures
D. Intractable pain in the cervical region - Correct Answer - B. Oral
temperature of 102°F
Clients with basilar skull fractures are at high risk for infection of the
brain, as indicated by an increased oral temperature, because the fracture
leaves the meninges open to bacterial invasion. Clients may experience
options C and D, but these findings do not pose as great a life-
threatening risk as infection. Jugular distention is not a typical
complication of basal skull fractures.
A client is diagnosed with an acute small bowel obstruction and
suddenly spikes a temperature of 102°F/38.9°C. What other assessments
should the nurse include in the client's focused assessment? (Select all
that apply.)
pg. 2
,A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Loss of appetite
C. Abdominal cramping
D. Guarding with abdominal palpation
E. Low urine output
F. Cool, clammy skin - Correct Answer – A, B, C, D.
The client is showing signs of peritonitis with the sudden spike in
temperature. Low urine output and cool clammy skin are not seen with
peritonitis. Peritonitis is a medical emergency and the health care
provider must be notified immediately.
Which nursing action would be appropriate for a client who is newly
diagnosed with Cushing syndrome?
A. Monitor blood glucose levels daily.
B. Increase intake of fluids high in potassium.
C. Encourage adequate rest between activities.
D. Offer the client a sodium-enriched menu. - Correct Answer - A.
Monitor blood glucose levels daily.
Cushing syndrome results from a hypersecretion of glucocorticoids in
the adrenal cortex. Clients with Cushing syndrome often develop
diabetes mellitus. Monitoring of serum glucose levels assesses for
increased blood glucose levels so that treatment can begin early. A
common finding in Cushing syndrome is generalized edema. Although
potassium is needed, it is generally obtained from food intake, not by
offering potassium-enhanced fluids. Fatigue is usually not an
overwhelming factor in Cushing syndrome, so an emphasis on the need
for rest is not indicated. A low-calorie, low-carbohydrate, low-sodium
diet is not recommended.
pg. 3
, A client with type 2 diabetes takes metformin daily. The client is
scheduled for major surgery requiring general anesthesia the next day.
The nurse anticipates which approach to manage the client's diabetes
best while the client is NPO during the perioperative period?
A. NPO except for metformin and regular snacks
B. NPO except for oral antidiabetic agent
C. Novolin N insulin subcutaneously twice daily
D. Regular insulin subcutaneously per sliding scale - Correct Answer -
D. Regular insulin subcutaneously per sliding scale
Regular insulin dosing based on the client's blood glucose levels (sliding
scale) is the best method to achieve control of the client's blood glucose
while the client is NPO and coping with the major stress of surgery.
The nurse observes ventricular fibrillation on telemetry and, on entering
the client's bathroom, finds the client unconscious on the floor. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer an antidysrhythmic medication.
B. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
C. Prepare for mechanical ventilation.
D. Assess the client's pulse oximetry. - Correct Answer - B. Start
cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening dysrhythmia, and CPR should
be started immediately until the crash cart arrives. Options A and C are
appropriate, but CPR is the priority action until a defibrillator is
available, which is the most effective treatment for ventricular
fibrillation. The client is dying, and option D does not address the
seriousness of this situation.
pg. 4
ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK| ELSEVIER HESI MED-
SURG II EVOLVE EXAM REVIEW WITH COMPLETE
300 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!)
An emaciated homeless client presents to the emergency department
complaining of a productive cough, with blood-tinged sputum and night
sweats. Which action is most important for the emergency department
triage nurse to take for this client?
A. Initiate airborne infection precautions.
B. Place a surgical mask on the client.
C. Don an isolation gown and latex gloves.
D. Start protective (reverse) isolation precautions. - Correct Answer - A.
Initiate airborne infection precautions.
This client is exhibiting classic symptoms of tuberculosis (TB), and the
client is from a high-risk population for TB. Therefore, airborne
infection precautions, which are indicated for TB, should be used with
this client. Option B is used with droplet precautions. There is no
evidence that option C or D would be warranted at this time.
What is the correct location for placement of the hands for manual chest
compressions during cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on the adult
client?
A. Just above the xiphoid process, on the upper third of the sternum
B. Below the xiphoid process, midway between the sternum and the
umbilicus
pg. 1
,C. Just above the xiphoid process, on the lower third of the sternum
D. Below the xiphoid process, midway between the sternum and the first
rib - Correct Answer - C. Just above the xiphoid process, on the lower
third of the sternum
The correct placement of the hands for chest compressions in CPR is
just above the notch where the ribs meet the sternum on the lower part of
the sternum.
A 25-year-old client was admitted yesterday after a motor vehicle
collision. Neurodiagnostic studies have shown a basal skull fracture in
the middle fossa. Assessment on admission revealed both halo and Battle
signs. Which new symptom indicates that the client is likely to be
experiencing a common life-threatening complication associated with a
basal skull fracture?
A. Bilateral jugular venous distention
B. Oral temperature of 102°F
C. Intermittent focal motor seizures
D. Intractable pain in the cervical region - Correct Answer - B. Oral
temperature of 102°F
Clients with basilar skull fractures are at high risk for infection of the
brain, as indicated by an increased oral temperature, because the fracture
leaves the meninges open to bacterial invasion. Clients may experience
options C and D, but these findings do not pose as great a life-
threatening risk as infection. Jugular distention is not a typical
complication of basal skull fractures.
A client is diagnosed with an acute small bowel obstruction and
suddenly spikes a temperature of 102°F/38.9°C. What other assessments
should the nurse include in the client's focused assessment? (Select all
that apply.)
pg. 2
,A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Loss of appetite
C. Abdominal cramping
D. Guarding with abdominal palpation
E. Low urine output
F. Cool, clammy skin - Correct Answer – A, B, C, D.
The client is showing signs of peritonitis with the sudden spike in
temperature. Low urine output and cool clammy skin are not seen with
peritonitis. Peritonitis is a medical emergency and the health care
provider must be notified immediately.
Which nursing action would be appropriate for a client who is newly
diagnosed with Cushing syndrome?
A. Monitor blood glucose levels daily.
B. Increase intake of fluids high in potassium.
C. Encourage adequate rest between activities.
D. Offer the client a sodium-enriched menu. - Correct Answer - A.
Monitor blood glucose levels daily.
Cushing syndrome results from a hypersecretion of glucocorticoids in
the adrenal cortex. Clients with Cushing syndrome often develop
diabetes mellitus. Monitoring of serum glucose levels assesses for
increased blood glucose levels so that treatment can begin early. A
common finding in Cushing syndrome is generalized edema. Although
potassium is needed, it is generally obtained from food intake, not by
offering potassium-enhanced fluids. Fatigue is usually not an
overwhelming factor in Cushing syndrome, so an emphasis on the need
for rest is not indicated. A low-calorie, low-carbohydrate, low-sodium
diet is not recommended.
pg. 3
, A client with type 2 diabetes takes metformin daily. The client is
scheduled for major surgery requiring general anesthesia the next day.
The nurse anticipates which approach to manage the client's diabetes
best while the client is NPO during the perioperative period?
A. NPO except for metformin and regular snacks
B. NPO except for oral antidiabetic agent
C. Novolin N insulin subcutaneously twice daily
D. Regular insulin subcutaneously per sliding scale - Correct Answer -
D. Regular insulin subcutaneously per sliding scale
Regular insulin dosing based on the client's blood glucose levels (sliding
scale) is the best method to achieve control of the client's blood glucose
while the client is NPO and coping with the major stress of surgery.
The nurse observes ventricular fibrillation on telemetry and, on entering
the client's bathroom, finds the client unconscious on the floor. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer an antidysrhythmic medication.
B. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
C. Prepare for mechanical ventilation.
D. Assess the client's pulse oximetry. - Correct Answer - B. Start
cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening dysrhythmia, and CPR should
be started immediately until the crash cart arrives. Options A and C are
appropriate, but CPR is the priority action until a defibrillator is
available, which is the most effective treatment for ventricular
fibrillation. The client is dying, and option D does not address the
seriousness of this situation.
pg. 4
