2026 PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED
ANSWERS & RATIONALES MENOPAUSE SOCIETY
CERTIFIED PRACTITIONER TEST BANK
Question 1
Continued vasomotor symptoms in a 52-year-old postmenopausal
woman with hysterectomy receiving 0.3 mg oral conjugated equine
estrogens can best be managed by:
Answer: Increasing the daily estrogen dose
Rationale: The patient is on the lowest FDA-approved dose of CEE
(0.3 mg). With persistent symptoms despite adequate treatment
duration (typically 4-8 weeks), dose escalation is appropriate. The 0.3
mg dose may be insufficient for symptom control in some women.
Since she had a hysterectomy, no progestogen is needed, simplifying
dose adjustment.
Question 2
Which agent is best to treat moderate hot flashes in a 55-year-old
woman with history of breast cancer?
Answer: C. Paroxetine
Rationale:
• Systemic estrogen is contraindicated in breast cancer survivors
• Paroxetine 7.5 mg (Brisdelle) is FDA-approved specifically for
VMS
• It's a non-hormonal option with demonstrated efficacy
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, • SSRIs/SNRIs are preferred non-hormonal alternatives for breast
cancer survivors
• Other options like venlafaxine, gabapentin are also used, but
paroxetine has FDA approval for this indication
Question 3
Which strategy helps reduce VTE risk with HRT?
Answer: Use transdermal estrogen instead
Rationale:
• Transdermal avoids first-pass hepatic metabolism
• Lower impact on coagulation factors
• Lower VTE risk vs oral estrogen
• VTE risk is dose-dependent
• Especially important in women with other VTE risk factors
Question 4
What is the risk of hormone therapy in women with history of VTE?
A) No increased risk
B) Increased risk, especially with oral estrogen
C) Only increased risk with transdermal
D) Risk is eliminated with progestins
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Women with a history of VTE have increased risk with
hormone therapy, especially with oral estrogen. Transdermal
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, estrogen is preferred if HT is deemed necessary. However, in many
cases, HT is contraindicated.
Question 5
46-year-old female with pain with intercourse (hysterectomy, ovaries
remain), no other menopausal symptoms. Best treatment:
Answer: Intravaginal estrogen only
Rationale:
• Symptoms are localized (no VMS)
• Ovaries remain so estrogen production continues
• Hysterectomy but ovaries intact = no VMS likely
• Intravaginal estrogen targets GSM locally
• No progestogen needed (no uterus)
Question 6
A 55-year-old woman has been on HT for 10 years and asks about
continuing. What is the most appropriate recommendation?
A) Continue indefinitely
B) Discuss risks/benefits and consider tapering
C) Switch to estrogen alone
D) Stop immediately due to breast cancer risk
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Long-term HT use (>5 years) requires ongoing risk-
benefit assessment. Shared decision-making about continuation or
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, tapering is essential.
Question 7
Best treatment option for 54-year-old postmenopausal woman with
vaginal dryness, itching, and dyspareunia (intact uterus):
Answer: Intravaginal estrogen cream
Rationale:
• Local therapy for localized symptoms
• Minimal systemic absorption
• No endometrial protection needed with low-dose vaginal
estrogen
• First-line for GSM
• Safer than systemic therapy with fewer risks
Question 8
What is the "climacteric phase"?
A) The final menstrual period
B) The period of endocrinologic, somatic, and transitory psychologic
changes around the time of menopause
C) The perimenopause only
D) The postmenopausal period
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The climacteric phase is the period of endocrinologic,
somatic, and transitory psychologic changes that occur around the
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