,NUR283/NUR 283 COMP 3 Exam | RN Transition
Practice | Galen College | Q & A | 2026 Edition (PDF)
**1. The charge nurse is assigning staff to patients on a medical-surgical unit. Which patient should be
assigned to the LPN?**
A) A patient with newly diagnosed diabetic ketoacidosis on an insulin drip
B) A patient with pneumonia who is hemodynamically stable and requires scheduled IV antibiotics
C) A patient post-cardiac arrest requiring frequent neurological assessments
D) A patient with an epidural catheter for post-op pain management
Correct Answer: B) A patient with pneumonia who is hemodynamically stable and requires scheduled IV
antibiotics
Rationale: LPNs can care for stable patients with predictable outcomes and perform tasks like
administering IV antibiotics to stable patients. Unstable patients, those requiring frequent assessments,
or those with complex titratable drips (insulin, epidurals) require an RN.
**2. The nurse is caring for the following assigned clients who are 24 hours postoperative. The nurse
performed a change-of-shift assessment 4 hours ago. Which of the following changes in client condition
should the nurse identify as a priority?**
A) The client who reports an increased pain level of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10 after receiving an opioid
analgesic
B) The client who reports nausea after receiving prescribed antibiotics
C) The client whose dressing has a small amount of new serosanguineous drainage
D) The client who has voided 200 mL in the last 4 hours
Correct Answer: A) The client who reports an increased pain level of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10 after
receiving an opioid analgesic
Rationale: Unrelieved or increasing pain after opioids may signal complications such as hemorrhage,
compartment syndrome, or anastomotic leak. This change from baseline is the most concerning and
needs prompt evaluation.
,**3. The nurse preceptor is teaching a newly hired nurse about legal principles when providing client
care. Which of the following situations should the nurse preceptor use as an example of malpractice?**
A) A nurse documents care at the end of the shift instead of in real time
B) A nurse delays administering a routine oral medication by 30 minutes
C) A client who is competent refuses an antidepressant medication. The nurse dissolves the medication
in food and administers it to the client without the client's knowledge
D) A nurse forgets to orient a new client to the call-bell system
Correct Answer: C) A client who is competent refuses an antidepressant medication. The nurse dissolves
the medication in food and administers it to the client without the client's knowledge
Rationale: Giving medication against a competent client's wishes and disguising it violates autonomy,
informed consent, and constitutes battery and malpractice, because harm can result from this
intentional deception.
**4. The nurse has attended a conference on informed consent. It indicates a correct understanding of
the conference if the nurse states that informed consent:**
A) May be obtained verbally if the client is anxious
B) Can be waived, per facility policy, for urgent medical or surgical treatment if the client is unconscious
C) Can be signed by a family member even if the client is competent
D) Is not needed if the procedure is minimally invasive
Correct Answer: B) Can be waived, per facility policy, for urgent medical or surgical treatment if the
client is unconscious
Rationale: In a true emergency with an unconscious client and no surrogate, lifesaving treatment can
proceed under implied consent according to facility policy and law. Routine procedures still require
informed consent from a competent patient.
**5. The nurse prioritizing client care after receiving the hand-off report. The nurse should first plan to
see who?**
A) Has cirrhosis, reports several new areas of ecchymosis, and has a partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of
76 seconds
, B) Is postoperative day 2 following hip replacement and reports pain 4/10
C) Has COPD and oxygen saturation of 90% on 2 L nasal cannula
D) Has type 2 diabetes and capillary blood glucose of 220 mg/dL
Correct Answer: A) Has cirrhosis, reports several new areas of ecchymosis, and has a partial
thromboplastin time (PTT) of 76 seconds
Rationale: Cirrhosis plus an elevated PTT and new bruising indicates significant coagulopathy and high
bleeding risk, requiring immediate assessment. The other findings are less urgent.
**6. The nurse working on a pediatric cardiac unit is reviewing the telemetry monitors for assigned
clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse initially plan to assess?**
A) A 6-year-old with a pulse of 110 while watching TV
B) A 1-month-old infant who is sleeping and has a pulse (P) of 180
C) A 10-year-old with a pulse of 98 while ambulating
D) A 3-year-old with a pulse of 100 while crying
Correct Answer: B) A 1-month-old infant who is sleeping and has a pulse (P) of 180
Rationale: A resting heart rate of 180 in a sleeping 1-month-old is abnormally high and may indicate
decompensation or tachyarrhythmia. The other heart rates are appropriate for activity and age.
**7. The nurse working on a pediatric unit is caring for the following children who have been admitted
within the past 12 hours. It is a priority for the nurse to initiate an interdisciplinary conference for the
child who is:**
A) 2 years old and admitted with first-time asthma exacerbation
B) 5 years old, was diagnosed with cystic fibrosis (CF) at birth, and has been hospitalized 4 times in the
past 2 months
C) 7 years old and admitted with pneumonia after a viral illness
D) 10 years old and admitted for new-onset type 1 diabetes
Practice | Galen College | Q & A | 2026 Edition (PDF)
**1. The charge nurse is assigning staff to patients on a medical-surgical unit. Which patient should be
assigned to the LPN?**
A) A patient with newly diagnosed diabetic ketoacidosis on an insulin drip
B) A patient with pneumonia who is hemodynamically stable and requires scheduled IV antibiotics
C) A patient post-cardiac arrest requiring frequent neurological assessments
D) A patient with an epidural catheter for post-op pain management
Correct Answer: B) A patient with pneumonia who is hemodynamically stable and requires scheduled IV
antibiotics
Rationale: LPNs can care for stable patients with predictable outcomes and perform tasks like
administering IV antibiotics to stable patients. Unstable patients, those requiring frequent assessments,
or those with complex titratable drips (insulin, epidurals) require an RN.
**2. The nurse is caring for the following assigned clients who are 24 hours postoperative. The nurse
performed a change-of-shift assessment 4 hours ago. Which of the following changes in client condition
should the nurse identify as a priority?**
A) The client who reports an increased pain level of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10 after receiving an opioid
analgesic
B) The client who reports nausea after receiving prescribed antibiotics
C) The client whose dressing has a small amount of new serosanguineous drainage
D) The client who has voided 200 mL in the last 4 hours
Correct Answer: A) The client who reports an increased pain level of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10 after
receiving an opioid analgesic
Rationale: Unrelieved or increasing pain after opioids may signal complications such as hemorrhage,
compartment syndrome, or anastomotic leak. This change from baseline is the most concerning and
needs prompt evaluation.
,**3. The nurse preceptor is teaching a newly hired nurse about legal principles when providing client
care. Which of the following situations should the nurse preceptor use as an example of malpractice?**
A) A nurse documents care at the end of the shift instead of in real time
B) A nurse delays administering a routine oral medication by 30 minutes
C) A client who is competent refuses an antidepressant medication. The nurse dissolves the medication
in food and administers it to the client without the client's knowledge
D) A nurse forgets to orient a new client to the call-bell system
Correct Answer: C) A client who is competent refuses an antidepressant medication. The nurse dissolves
the medication in food and administers it to the client without the client's knowledge
Rationale: Giving medication against a competent client's wishes and disguising it violates autonomy,
informed consent, and constitutes battery and malpractice, because harm can result from this
intentional deception.
**4. The nurse has attended a conference on informed consent. It indicates a correct understanding of
the conference if the nurse states that informed consent:**
A) May be obtained verbally if the client is anxious
B) Can be waived, per facility policy, for urgent medical or surgical treatment if the client is unconscious
C) Can be signed by a family member even if the client is competent
D) Is not needed if the procedure is minimally invasive
Correct Answer: B) Can be waived, per facility policy, for urgent medical or surgical treatment if the
client is unconscious
Rationale: In a true emergency with an unconscious client and no surrogate, lifesaving treatment can
proceed under implied consent according to facility policy and law. Routine procedures still require
informed consent from a competent patient.
**5. The nurse prioritizing client care after receiving the hand-off report. The nurse should first plan to
see who?**
A) Has cirrhosis, reports several new areas of ecchymosis, and has a partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of
76 seconds
, B) Is postoperative day 2 following hip replacement and reports pain 4/10
C) Has COPD and oxygen saturation of 90% on 2 L nasal cannula
D) Has type 2 diabetes and capillary blood glucose of 220 mg/dL
Correct Answer: A) Has cirrhosis, reports several new areas of ecchymosis, and has a partial
thromboplastin time (PTT) of 76 seconds
Rationale: Cirrhosis plus an elevated PTT and new bruising indicates significant coagulopathy and high
bleeding risk, requiring immediate assessment. The other findings are less urgent.
**6. The nurse working on a pediatric cardiac unit is reviewing the telemetry monitors for assigned
clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse initially plan to assess?**
A) A 6-year-old with a pulse of 110 while watching TV
B) A 1-month-old infant who is sleeping and has a pulse (P) of 180
C) A 10-year-old with a pulse of 98 while ambulating
D) A 3-year-old with a pulse of 100 while crying
Correct Answer: B) A 1-month-old infant who is sleeping and has a pulse (P) of 180
Rationale: A resting heart rate of 180 in a sleeping 1-month-old is abnormally high and may indicate
decompensation or tachyarrhythmia. The other heart rates are appropriate for activity and age.
**7. The nurse working on a pediatric unit is caring for the following children who have been admitted
within the past 12 hours. It is a priority for the nurse to initiate an interdisciplinary conference for the
child who is:**
A) 2 years old and admitted with first-time asthma exacerbation
B) 5 years old, was diagnosed with cystic fibrosis (CF) at birth, and has been hospitalized 4 times in the
past 2 months
C) 7 years old and admitted with pneumonia after a viral illness
D) 10 years old and admitted for new-onset type 1 diabetes
