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NRNP 6531 Final Exam Practice Questions and Correct Answers | Advanced Primary Care Comprehensive Review

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Prepare for the NRNP 6531 Final Exam with this comprehensive practice question guide. It features multiple-choice questions with accurate answers and detailed rationales covering advanced health assessment, diagnostic reasoning, evidence-based management, pharmacology, health promotion, disease prevention, and the evaluation and treatment of common conditions affecting the cardiovascular, respiratory, endocrine, gastrointestinal, musculoskeletal, neurological, dermatological, genitourinary, and reproductive systems. An excellent resource for Family Nurse Practitioner students preparing for final examinations and clinical practice.

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NRNP 6531 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) Q&A 2026-2027|INSTANT DOWNLOAD

1. A 58-year-old patient presents with fatigue, polyuria,
polydipsia, and an elevated fasting glucose level of 138 mg/dL.
Which diagnosis is most appropriate?
A. Prediabetes
B. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
D. Diabetes insipidus
Correct Answer: C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Rationale: A fasting plasma glucose ≥126 mg/dL on appropriate
testing is diagnostic of diabetes. Adults with gradual onset and
insulin resistance most commonly have type 2 diabetes.


2. Which medication class is considered first-line therapy for
most patients newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes?
A. Insulin
B. Sulfonylureas
C. Metformin
D. GLP-1 receptor antagonists
Correct Answer: C. Metformin

,Rationale: Metformin improves insulin sensitivity, reduces
hepatic glucose production, and is generally first-line unless
contraindicated.


3. A patient with hypertension has a blood pressure of 168/96
mmHg. Which lifestyle intervention should the provider
recommend?
A. Increase sodium intake
B. Follow the DASH diet
C. Avoid physical activity
D. Increase caffeine intake
Correct Answer: B. Follow the DASH diet
Rationale: The DASH diet reduces blood pressure by
emphasizing fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and reduced
sodium intake.


4. Which finding suggests hypertensive emergency rather than
hypertensive urgency?
A. Elevated blood pressure without symptoms
B. Mild headache
C. Evidence of acute organ damage
D. History of hypertension
Correct Answer: C. Evidence of acute organ damage

,Rationale: Hypertensive emergency involves severe blood
pressure elevation with acute target-organ injury.


5. A patient taking an ACE inhibitor reports a persistent dry
cough. What is the most appropriate alternative medication?
A. Beta blocker
B. Angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB)
C. Calcium supplement
D. Loop diuretic
Correct Answer: B. Angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB)
Rationale: ARBs provide similar cardiovascular and renal
benefits without the ACE inhibitor-associated cough.


6. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor in a
patient taking an ACE inhibitor?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Potassium and creatinine
C. Platelets
D. Calcium
Correct Answer: B. Potassium and creatinine
Rationale: ACE inhibitors may increase potassium levels and
affect renal function.

, 7. A patient presents with unilateral weakness, facial
drooping, and speech difficulty. What is the priority action?
A. Schedule outpatient follow-up
B. Administer antibiotics
C. Activate emergency stroke evaluation
D. Recommend rest
Correct Answer: C. Activate emergency stroke evaluation
Rationale: These are classic stroke symptoms requiring
immediate assessment and treatment.


8. Which medication is commonly prescribed for secondary
prevention after an ischemic stroke?
A. Aspirin
B. Prednisone
C. Albuterol
D. Omeprazole
Correct Answer: A. Aspirin
Rationale: Antiplatelet therapy reduces the risk of recurrent
ischemic stroke.


9. A patient with COPD presents with increased dyspnea and
sputum production. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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