Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) Barkley
Post-Test Fall 2026 Comprehensive Final
Exam with Verified Rationales Practice
Questions and Answers 2026 with
complete solution
Question 1
What does a positive posterior drawer sign in a 10-year-old soccer player signify?
A. Normal knee
B. Instability of the knee
C. Swelling on the knee
D. Injury to the meniscus
Answer: B
Rationale: The drawer test is used to identify mediolateral or anteroposterior plane
instability of the knee. A positive posterior drawer indicates posterior cruciate
ligament (PCL) instability. The test is performed on the unaffected and affected
knee for comparison. The anterior drawer test evaluates the anterior cruciate
ligament (ACL).
Question 2
A patient injures an ankle while playing soccer and reports rolling the foot inward
while falling with immediate pain and swelling of the lateral part of the joint. The
,patient is able to bear weight and denies hearing an audible sound at the time of
injury. What does this history indicate?
A. Likely ankle sprain with a possible fracture
B. Mild ankle injury without fracture
C. Mild soft tissue injury only
D. Serious ankle injury with certain fracture
Answer: A
Rationale: Immediate swelling of the joint raises the index of suspicion for a
fracture or a substantial amount of joint involvement. Without radiographs, none of
these possibilities can be confirmed.
Question 3
A patient who is a distance runner reports pain in one heel that is worse in the
morning and seems to improve with exercise. The provider notes localized swelling
and a bony prominence at the heel. What is the initial treatment for this condition?
A. Cessation of all sports activities and exercise
B. Crutches and partial weight bearing
C. Physical therapy for ultrasound therapy
D. Rest, ice, and stretching exercises
Answer: D
Rationale: This presentation is consistent with plantar fasciitis. Initial treatment
includes rest, ice, stretching exercises, and activity modification. Complete
cessation of activity is not typically required initially.
,Question 4
What is the significance of a positive Lachman sign?
A. Instability of the knee caused by damage to the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
B. Posterior cruciate ligament laxity which may cause locking of the knee
C. Achilles tendon rupture
D. Patellar tendon rupture
Answer: A
Rationale: A positive Lachman sign is highly suggestive of damage to (i.e., rupture
of) the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). The Lachman test is performed with the
patient supine and the knee flexed at 20-30 degrees.
Question 5
What is the average normal intraocular pressure?
A. 5 mmHg
B. 10 mmHg
C. 15 mmHg
D. 25 mmHg
Answer: C
Rationale: Normal intraocular pressure ranges from 10-21 mmHg, with an average
of approximately 15 mmHg. Pressures above 21 mmHg are considered elevated
and may indicate glaucoma.
, Question 6
What is the minimum percentage of total body surface area (TBSA) to utilize the
Parkland formula for adults?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%
Answer: C
Rationale: The Parkland formula is used for burn resuscitation in adults with burns
covering ≥20% TBSA. For burns <20% TBSA, oral fluids may be sufficient.
Question 7
During a fundoscopic examination, you note a "copper wire" appearance of the
retinal arterioles. What condition does this suggest?
A. Diabetic retinopathy
B. Hypertensive retinopathy
C. Glaucoma
D. Macular degeneration
Answer: B
Rationale: "Copper wire" and "silver wire" appearances of retinal arterioles are
characteristic findings in hypertensive retinopathy, reflecting arteriolar thickening
and sclerosis.
Post-Test Fall 2026 Comprehensive Final
Exam with Verified Rationales Practice
Questions and Answers 2026 with
complete solution
Question 1
What does a positive posterior drawer sign in a 10-year-old soccer player signify?
A. Normal knee
B. Instability of the knee
C. Swelling on the knee
D. Injury to the meniscus
Answer: B
Rationale: The drawer test is used to identify mediolateral or anteroposterior plane
instability of the knee. A positive posterior drawer indicates posterior cruciate
ligament (PCL) instability. The test is performed on the unaffected and affected
knee for comparison. The anterior drawer test evaluates the anterior cruciate
ligament (ACL).
Question 2
A patient injures an ankle while playing soccer and reports rolling the foot inward
while falling with immediate pain and swelling of the lateral part of the joint. The
,patient is able to bear weight and denies hearing an audible sound at the time of
injury. What does this history indicate?
A. Likely ankle sprain with a possible fracture
B. Mild ankle injury without fracture
C. Mild soft tissue injury only
D. Serious ankle injury with certain fracture
Answer: A
Rationale: Immediate swelling of the joint raises the index of suspicion for a
fracture or a substantial amount of joint involvement. Without radiographs, none of
these possibilities can be confirmed.
Question 3
A patient who is a distance runner reports pain in one heel that is worse in the
morning and seems to improve with exercise. The provider notes localized swelling
and a bony prominence at the heel. What is the initial treatment for this condition?
A. Cessation of all sports activities and exercise
B. Crutches and partial weight bearing
C. Physical therapy for ultrasound therapy
D. Rest, ice, and stretching exercises
Answer: D
Rationale: This presentation is consistent with plantar fasciitis. Initial treatment
includes rest, ice, stretching exercises, and activity modification. Complete
cessation of activity is not typically required initially.
,Question 4
What is the significance of a positive Lachman sign?
A. Instability of the knee caused by damage to the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
B. Posterior cruciate ligament laxity which may cause locking of the knee
C. Achilles tendon rupture
D. Patellar tendon rupture
Answer: A
Rationale: A positive Lachman sign is highly suggestive of damage to (i.e., rupture
of) the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). The Lachman test is performed with the
patient supine and the knee flexed at 20-30 degrees.
Question 5
What is the average normal intraocular pressure?
A. 5 mmHg
B. 10 mmHg
C. 15 mmHg
D. 25 mmHg
Answer: C
Rationale: Normal intraocular pressure ranges from 10-21 mmHg, with an average
of approximately 15 mmHg. Pressures above 21 mmHg are considered elevated
and may indicate glaucoma.
, Question 6
What is the minimum percentage of total body surface area (TBSA) to utilize the
Parkland formula for adults?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%
Answer: C
Rationale: The Parkland formula is used for burn resuscitation in adults with burns
covering ≥20% TBSA. For burns <20% TBSA, oral fluids may be sufficient.
Question 7
During a fundoscopic examination, you note a "copper wire" appearance of the
retinal arterioles. What condition does this suggest?
A. Diabetic retinopathy
B. Hypertensive retinopathy
C. Glaucoma
D. Macular degeneration
Answer: B
Rationale: "Copper wire" and "silver wire" appearances of retinal arterioles are
characteristic findings in hypertensive retinopathy, reflecting arteriolar thickening
and sclerosis.
