FNP – Sarah Michelle’s Primary Care Comprehensive
Test Bank Exam AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS 2026-
2027 COMPLETE ACCURATE EXAM REAL QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES (RELIABLE SOLUTIONS) CURRENTLY
UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION
The nurse practitioner is reviewing the urinalysis results of a young adult
patient with a suspected urinary tract infection (UTI). She does not have a
frequent history of UTI's and is noted to be allergic to penicillins. It is
noted in the sample that a multitude of squamous epithelial cells are
present. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment plan
for this patient?
a. Prescribe the patient a three day course of Macrobid (nitrofurantoin),
and order a urine culture & sensitivity
b. Prescribe the patient a seven day course of Ciprofloxacin (Cipro), and
instruct the patient there is no need to follow up as long as symptoms
resolve
c. Order an additional urinalysis to review
d. Educate the patient on lifestyle interventions for preventing urinary
tract infections in the future such
as cranberry tablets
Correct Answer: Order an additional urinalysis to review
Rationale: Squamous epithelial cells in the patient’s urine are oftentimes
indicative of the sample being contaminated by cells in the patient’s
vaginal opening. Due to this possible contamination, a second urinalysis
needs to be performed prior to deciding a possible empiric treatment
plan.
,A patient is very concerned about their recent diagnosis of polycythemia
vera. The nurse practitioner decides to provide some further anticipatory
guidance for this patient. Which of the following would be inappropriate
to educate this patient about?
a. Phlebotomy is often initiated until the hematocrit is less than 35%.
b. Continued treatment is necessary throughout the rest of the patient's
lifespan.
c. Further care is handled oftentimes by hematology or oncology, and
they may prescribe Hydroxyurea (Hydrea).
d. There is no cure, but there are several avenues available for symptom
management such as Aspirin.
Correct Answer: Phlebotomy is often initiated until the hematocrit is
less than 35%.
Rationale: Phlebotomy is actually often initiated until the hematocrit is
less than 45%, not 35%. The patient will require lifelong treatment as there
is no cure present. Hydroxyurea can be utilized for these patients in
order to slow down the production of more red blood cells. Aspirin can
also be used to further help thin out the blood.
A mother brings her 7 year old child into the clinic with the chief
complaint of a fever for 4 days. She reports that the child's fever has been
resolved since yesterday, but wanted to still bring her child in to get
looked at. Upon exam, the nurse practitioner notes a lacy, maculopapular
rash along the arms and trunk and very flushed cheeks. What condition
does the nurse practitioner suspect?
a. Erythema migrans
b. Erythema infectiosum
c. Erythema multiforme
d. Erythema nodosum
Correct Answer: Erythema infectiosum
Rationale: Based on this characteristic description of a fever that resolves
followed by the lacy rash and “slapped-cheeks,” this child has erythema
infectiosum, also known as Fifth Disease This is caused by Parvovirus B19.
,A 77 year old female presents to the office with diminished central vision
and line distortion. She notes this came on very gradually and denies eye
pain. She has a history of gout, osteoporosis, and hypertension. What
would be the most appropriate intervention to discuss with this patient?
a. Discussing the initiation of corrective lenses
b. Selecting large print books
c. Initiation of statin therapy as high cholesterol can worsen macular
degeneration
d. Referral to ophthalmology to discuss lens replacement surgery
Correct Answer: Selecting large print books
Rationale: This patient is presenting with signs and symptoms of macular
degeneration. Since macular degeneration is caused by damage to the
retina, corrective lenses are not going to provide benefit for this patient.
However, larger print may make it easier for the patient to read. As well,
studies have shown that uncontrolled hypertension is directly related to
macular degeneration, so strict blood pressure control will be important
for this patient, however there is not sufficient evidence to support the
use of statin therapy in those with this diagnosis. Finally, lens replacement
surgery is used to treat cataracts, not macular degeneration.
, The nurse practitioner is seeing a 22 year old male who is a competitive
baseball player. After discussing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
results indicative of a rotator cuff tear, the patient asks how this can
happen. All of the following are correct statements except:
a. Repetitive lifting and overhead motion overtime causes stress on the
rotator cuff muscles and tendons
b. Falling on an outstretched hand
c. A sudden pull on the shoulder causing a jerking motion
d. Recurrent dislocation of the shoulder joint
Correct Answer: Recurrent dislocation of the shoulder joint
Rationale: In this patient, a rotator cuff injury is caused by a repetitive
throwing motion which causes stress on the rotator cuff muscles and
tendons overtime. Athletes most commonly affected by this are tennis
and baseball players. Other causes include falling with hands extended
forward, and sudden pulling motion of the shoulder.
A new patient presents to the office for an initial visit, and states that they
are a member of The Church of Jesus Chris of Latter-Day Saints. Which of
the following is in alignment with what the members of this community
observe?
a. No work on the Sabbath
b. No hot tea or coffee
c. No eating from sun up to sun down during the Lenten season
d. Women must be accompanied by their husbands during physical
exams
Correct Answer: No hot tea or coffee
Rationale: The Church of Jesus Chris of Latter-Day Saints is home to
members of the Mormon faith. They observe strict purity laws such as no
alcoholic beverages or tobacco, no hot tea or coffee, and abstaining
fromsexual intercourse until marriage. The Sabbath is a recognized say in
the Jewish faith, while Lent is a Catholic holiday season.
Test Bank Exam AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS 2026-
2027 COMPLETE ACCURATE EXAM REAL QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES (RELIABLE SOLUTIONS) CURRENTLY
UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION
The nurse practitioner is reviewing the urinalysis results of a young adult
patient with a suspected urinary tract infection (UTI). She does not have a
frequent history of UTI's and is noted to be allergic to penicillins. It is
noted in the sample that a multitude of squamous epithelial cells are
present. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment plan
for this patient?
a. Prescribe the patient a three day course of Macrobid (nitrofurantoin),
and order a urine culture & sensitivity
b. Prescribe the patient a seven day course of Ciprofloxacin (Cipro), and
instruct the patient there is no need to follow up as long as symptoms
resolve
c. Order an additional urinalysis to review
d. Educate the patient on lifestyle interventions for preventing urinary
tract infections in the future such
as cranberry tablets
Correct Answer: Order an additional urinalysis to review
Rationale: Squamous epithelial cells in the patient’s urine are oftentimes
indicative of the sample being contaminated by cells in the patient’s
vaginal opening. Due to this possible contamination, a second urinalysis
needs to be performed prior to deciding a possible empiric treatment
plan.
,A patient is very concerned about their recent diagnosis of polycythemia
vera. The nurse practitioner decides to provide some further anticipatory
guidance for this patient. Which of the following would be inappropriate
to educate this patient about?
a. Phlebotomy is often initiated until the hematocrit is less than 35%.
b. Continued treatment is necessary throughout the rest of the patient's
lifespan.
c. Further care is handled oftentimes by hematology or oncology, and
they may prescribe Hydroxyurea (Hydrea).
d. There is no cure, but there are several avenues available for symptom
management such as Aspirin.
Correct Answer: Phlebotomy is often initiated until the hematocrit is
less than 35%.
Rationale: Phlebotomy is actually often initiated until the hematocrit is
less than 45%, not 35%. The patient will require lifelong treatment as there
is no cure present. Hydroxyurea can be utilized for these patients in
order to slow down the production of more red blood cells. Aspirin can
also be used to further help thin out the blood.
A mother brings her 7 year old child into the clinic with the chief
complaint of a fever for 4 days. She reports that the child's fever has been
resolved since yesterday, but wanted to still bring her child in to get
looked at. Upon exam, the nurse practitioner notes a lacy, maculopapular
rash along the arms and trunk and very flushed cheeks. What condition
does the nurse practitioner suspect?
a. Erythema migrans
b. Erythema infectiosum
c. Erythema multiforme
d. Erythema nodosum
Correct Answer: Erythema infectiosum
Rationale: Based on this characteristic description of a fever that resolves
followed by the lacy rash and “slapped-cheeks,” this child has erythema
infectiosum, also known as Fifth Disease This is caused by Parvovirus B19.
,A 77 year old female presents to the office with diminished central vision
and line distortion. She notes this came on very gradually and denies eye
pain. She has a history of gout, osteoporosis, and hypertension. What
would be the most appropriate intervention to discuss with this patient?
a. Discussing the initiation of corrective lenses
b. Selecting large print books
c. Initiation of statin therapy as high cholesterol can worsen macular
degeneration
d. Referral to ophthalmology to discuss lens replacement surgery
Correct Answer: Selecting large print books
Rationale: This patient is presenting with signs and symptoms of macular
degeneration. Since macular degeneration is caused by damage to the
retina, corrective lenses are not going to provide benefit for this patient.
However, larger print may make it easier for the patient to read. As well,
studies have shown that uncontrolled hypertension is directly related to
macular degeneration, so strict blood pressure control will be important
for this patient, however there is not sufficient evidence to support the
use of statin therapy in those with this diagnosis. Finally, lens replacement
surgery is used to treat cataracts, not macular degeneration.
, The nurse practitioner is seeing a 22 year old male who is a competitive
baseball player. After discussing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
results indicative of a rotator cuff tear, the patient asks how this can
happen. All of the following are correct statements except:
a. Repetitive lifting and overhead motion overtime causes stress on the
rotator cuff muscles and tendons
b. Falling on an outstretched hand
c. A sudden pull on the shoulder causing a jerking motion
d. Recurrent dislocation of the shoulder joint
Correct Answer: Recurrent dislocation of the shoulder joint
Rationale: In this patient, a rotator cuff injury is caused by a repetitive
throwing motion which causes stress on the rotator cuff muscles and
tendons overtime. Athletes most commonly affected by this are tennis
and baseball players. Other causes include falling with hands extended
forward, and sudden pulling motion of the shoulder.
A new patient presents to the office for an initial visit, and states that they
are a member of The Church of Jesus Chris of Latter-Day Saints. Which of
the following is in alignment with what the members of this community
observe?
a. No work on the Sabbath
b. No hot tea or coffee
c. No eating from sun up to sun down during the Lenten season
d. Women must be accompanied by their husbands during physical
exams
Correct Answer: No hot tea or coffee
Rationale: The Church of Jesus Chris of Latter-Day Saints is home to
members of the Mormon faith. They observe strict purity laws such as no
alcoholic beverages or tobacco, no hot tea or coffee, and abstaining
fromsexual intercourse until marriage. The Sabbath is a recognized say in
the Jewish faith, while Lent is a Catholic holiday season.
