GALEN COLLEGE OF NURSING (PDF) | 2026 EXAM
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS + RATIONALES | STUDY GUIDE |
100% CORRECT
1. According to the Galen College course syllabus for BIO 1100, what is the primary focus
of this theory course?
A) To provide a comprehensive study of human anatomy and physiology, including basic
terminology, chemistry, cellular structure, and the integumentary, skeletal, muscular, and
nervous systems.
B) To focus exclusively on the clinical application of anatomy and physiology in a
hospital setting.
C) To cover advanced topics in pathophysiology and pharmacology.
D) To study the evolution of human anatomical structures.
Correct Answer: A) To provide a comprehensive study of human anatomy and physiology,
including basic terminology, chemistry, cellular structure, and the integumentary, skeletal,
muscular, and nervous systems.
Rationale: The course catalog description states that BIO 1100 surveys basic anatomical and
physiological terminology, chemistry, cellular structure, histology, and the integumentary,
skeletal, muscular, and nervous systems . This aligns with the foundational nature of the course.
2. According to the course syllabus, what is the co-requisite for BIO 1100?
A) BIO 1200
B) BIO 1150
C) BIO 2100
D) NUR 170
Correct Answer: B) BIO 1150.
Rationale: The BIO 1100 syllabus explicitly states that BIO 1150, Human Anatomy &
Physiology I – Laboratory, is a co-requisite . This means both courses must be taken
concurrently.
3. According to the course syllabus, how many quarter credit hours does BIO 1100 carry?
A) 2 quarter credit hours.
B) 3 quarter credit hours.
C) 4 quarter credit hours.
D) 5 quarter credit hours.
Correct Answer: C) 4 quarter credit hours.
Rationale: Multiple official syllabi for BIO 1100 list the course as carrying 4 quarter credit hours
with 48 contact hours . This is a standard full-credit foundational science course.
, 4. Which of the following is the basic structural and functional unit of all living organisms?
A) Atom
B) Molecule
C) Cell
D) Tissue
Correct Answer: C) Cell.
Rationale: According to the BIO 1100 test bank, the cell is identified as the smallest structural
and functional unit of living organisms . This is a foundational concept in the study of anatomy
and physiology.
5. The plasma membrane is primarily composed of which of the following molecules?
A) Proteins and carbohydrates.
B) Phospholipids and proteins.
C) Phospholipids and cholesterol.
D) Nucleic acids and lipids.
Correct Answer: B) Phospholipids and proteins.
Rationale: The test bank and exam study materials indicate the plasma membrane is a bilayer
mainly composed of phospholipids with embedded proteins . This structure allows for selective
permeability and cellular communication.
6. A student is studying cell organelles. Which organelle is responsible for producing ATP
(adenosine triphosphate)?
A) Golgi apparatus.
B) Lysosome.
C) Mitochondrion.
D) Ribosome.
Correct Answer: C) Mitochondrion.
Rationale: The mitochondrion is known as the "powerhouse" of the cell, responsible for
generating most of the cell's ATP through cellular respiration . Ribosomes synthesize proteins,
while the Golgi apparatus modifies and packages them.
7. Which of the following tissues connects muscle to bone?
A) Ligament.
B) Cartilage.
C) Tendon.
D) Adipose tissue.
Correct Answer: C) Tendon.
Rationale: Tendons are the strong fibrous tissues that connect muscle to bone, enabling
movement . Ligaments connect bone to bone, while cartilage provides cushioning and support.
, 8. In the anatomical position, the palms of the hands face which direction?
A) Posteriorly.
B) Anteriorly.
C) Medially.
D) Laterally.
Correct Answer: B) Anteriorly.
Rationale: The anatomical position is a standard reference point with the body standing upright,
feet flat, and arms at the sides with the palms facing forward (anteriorly) . This is a fundamental
concept for describing body parts and their relationships.
9. A researcher is studying the process of cell division. Which process results in two
identical daughter cells?
A) Meiosis.
B) Mitosis.
C) Cytokinesis.
D) Apoptosis.
Correct Answer: B) Mitosis.
Rationale: Mitosis produces two genetically identical diploid daughter cells, which is the process
used for growth and repair . Meiosis produces genetically unique haploid cells for reproduction.
10. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is characterized by the presence of which
structure?
A) Ribosomes.
B) Lysosomes.
C) Centrioles.
D) Flagella.
Correct Answer: A) Ribosomes.
Rationale: The RER is studded with ribosomes, which are responsible for protein synthesis .
These ribosomes give the RER its "rough" appearance and are essential for making proteins for
secretion or the cell membrane.
11. Which of the following correctly defines osmosis?
A) Movement of solutes from high to low concentration.
B) Movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane.
C) Active transport of ions.
D) Endocytosis of particles.
Correct Answer: B) Movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane.
Rationale: Osmosis is specifically the diffusion of water across a selectively permeable
membrane, moving from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute
concentration . This is a passive process crucial for fluid balance.