NUR 376 Exam 3 V1 | NUR 376 Applied
Pathophysiology | Actual Q&A with
Rationale (NUR376 Exam 3) | Concordia
1. A patient is diagnosed with a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA). Which statement best
describes the underlying pathophysiology of this condition?
A. A temporary focal loss of neurological function caused by ischemia without acute
infarction.
B. A permanent occlusion of a cerebral artery leading to localized tissue necrosis.
C. Rupture of a cerebral vessel leading to subarachnoid hemorrhage.
D. Systemic hypotension causing generalized cerebral hypoperfusion.
Correct Answer: A
A TIA involves a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain that resolves before
permanent infarction occurs. Unlike a stroke, the symptoms typically resolve within 24
hours, and there is no evidence of permanent tissue death on imaging. It serves as a critical
warning sign for potential future ischemic strokes.
2. Which pathophysiological mechanism is responsible for the progression of Multiple
Sclerosis (MS)?
A. Autoimmune-mediated destruction of the peripheral nerve myelin sheath.
B. Degeneration of the nigrostriatal dopaminergic pathway.
,C. Excessive accumulation of amyloid-beta plaques in the cerebral cortex.
D. T-cell mediated inflammatory demyelination of the central nervous system.
Correct Answer: D
MS is characterized by the immune system attacking the myelin sheaths of neurons
specifically within the brain and spinal cord. This inflammatory process results in the
formation of sclerotic plaques that disrupt nerve impulse conduction. Chronic
inflammation eventually leads to axonal loss and permanent neurological deficit.
3. In the context of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), what does the Monroe-Kellie
hypothesis explain?
A. The relationship between cerebral perfusion pressure and mean arterial pressure.
B. The permeability of the blood-brain barrier during inflammatory responses.
C. The metabolic rate of oxygen consumption in the neurons during ischemia.
D. The compensation between blood, brain tissue, and cerebrospinal fluid to maintain
pressure.
Correct Answer: D
The Monroe-Kellie hypothesis states that the cranial vault is a fixed volume containing
brain tissue, blood, and CSF. If the volume of one component increases, the others must
decrease to maintain a constant pressure. Failure of this compensatory mechanism leads to
a rapid and dangerous rise in ICP.
, 4. A patient presents with ‘pill-rolling’ tremors, bradykinesia, and muscle rigidity. These
symptoms result from a deficiency in which neurotransmitter?
A. Acetylcholine
B. Serotonin
C. Dopamine
D. GABA
Correct Answer: C
Parkinson’s Disease involves the loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra of
the basal ganglia. Dopamine is essential for smooth, coordinated motor movement and
inhibitory control. The resulting imbalance between dopamine and acetylcholine leads to
the characteristic motor symptoms.
5. Which of the following clinical manifestations are associated with early stages of increased
intracranial pressure (ICP)? (Select all that apply)
A. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures
B. Headache that worsens with coughing or straining
C. Pupillary changes and sluggish reaction to light
D. Cushing’s Triad (bradycardia, hypertension, irregular respirations)
E. Projectile vomiting without nausea
F. Decreased level of consciousness
Pathophysiology | Actual Q&A with
Rationale (NUR376 Exam 3) | Concordia
1. A patient is diagnosed with a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA). Which statement best
describes the underlying pathophysiology of this condition?
A. A temporary focal loss of neurological function caused by ischemia without acute
infarction.
B. A permanent occlusion of a cerebral artery leading to localized tissue necrosis.
C. Rupture of a cerebral vessel leading to subarachnoid hemorrhage.
D. Systemic hypotension causing generalized cerebral hypoperfusion.
Correct Answer: A
A TIA involves a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain that resolves before
permanent infarction occurs. Unlike a stroke, the symptoms typically resolve within 24
hours, and there is no evidence of permanent tissue death on imaging. It serves as a critical
warning sign for potential future ischemic strokes.
2. Which pathophysiological mechanism is responsible for the progression of Multiple
Sclerosis (MS)?
A. Autoimmune-mediated destruction of the peripheral nerve myelin sheath.
B. Degeneration of the nigrostriatal dopaminergic pathway.
,C. Excessive accumulation of amyloid-beta plaques in the cerebral cortex.
D. T-cell mediated inflammatory demyelination of the central nervous system.
Correct Answer: D
MS is characterized by the immune system attacking the myelin sheaths of neurons
specifically within the brain and spinal cord. This inflammatory process results in the
formation of sclerotic plaques that disrupt nerve impulse conduction. Chronic
inflammation eventually leads to axonal loss and permanent neurological deficit.
3. In the context of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), what does the Monroe-Kellie
hypothesis explain?
A. The relationship between cerebral perfusion pressure and mean arterial pressure.
B. The permeability of the blood-brain barrier during inflammatory responses.
C. The metabolic rate of oxygen consumption in the neurons during ischemia.
D. The compensation between blood, brain tissue, and cerebrospinal fluid to maintain
pressure.
Correct Answer: D
The Monroe-Kellie hypothesis states that the cranial vault is a fixed volume containing
brain tissue, blood, and CSF. If the volume of one component increases, the others must
decrease to maintain a constant pressure. Failure of this compensatory mechanism leads to
a rapid and dangerous rise in ICP.
, 4. A patient presents with ‘pill-rolling’ tremors, bradykinesia, and muscle rigidity. These
symptoms result from a deficiency in which neurotransmitter?
A. Acetylcholine
B. Serotonin
C. Dopamine
D. GABA
Correct Answer: C
Parkinson’s Disease involves the loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra of
the basal ganglia. Dopamine is essential for smooth, coordinated motor movement and
inhibitory control. The resulting imbalance between dopamine and acetylcholine leads to
the characteristic motor symptoms.
5. Which of the following clinical manifestations are associated with early stages of increased
intracranial pressure (ICP)? (Select all that apply)
A. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures
B. Headache that worsens with coughing or straining
C. Pupillary changes and sluggish reaction to light
D. Cushing’s Triad (bradycardia, hypertension, irregular respirations)
E. Projectile vomiting without nausea
F. Decreased level of consciousness
