Gerontology HESI TEST Questions (Latest
Update ) with Verified Answers
100 % Correct [Grade A]
Which of the following is NOT a sign of depression in an older adult?
She neglects personal grooming.
She has difficulty concentrating.
She often becomes lost even in familiar places.
She worries about lapses in memory. - correct answer She often becomes lost even
in familiar places.
Older adults who are depressed may have trouble concentrating or may have memory
lapses. They often express concern about these lapses. Depression may lead to
neglect of personal grooming as well. Depression does not lead to patients being
disoriented or becoming easily lost. These symptoms are more often associated with
dementia.
,Change can be scary to anyone, but may be especially hard to deal with in the elderly
population. According to the Lewin Theory of Change, which of the following is the
second step?
Freezing.
Resisting.
Unfreezing
Change. - correct answer Change.
The Lewin Theory of Change represents three steps with regard to change. These are:
Unfreezing - During this step, the individual realizes change is necessary and mentally
prepares himself to do so. Change - Self-explanatory. Freezing (or refreezing) - Once
the change has taken place, the individual regains a sense of stability or normalcy.
Which medication can cause urinary incontinence by relaxing the internal urethral
sphincter and is used to treat BPH for this reason?
librium, a benzodiazepine
,furosemide, a diuretic
prazosin, an alpha-adrenergic antagonist
amitripylline, a tricyclic antidepressant - correct answer prazosin, an alpha-
adrenergic antagonist
This is not a good medication to use with a woman who has continence issues. These
medication s potentially increase the risk of postural hypotension in the older adult, as
well. Benzodiazepines cause alteration in sensorium and can lead to functional urinary
incontinence. Diuretics increase frequency of voiding and volume of urine. Tricyclic
antidepressants cause urinary retention, overflow incontinence, and alteration in
sensorium
A 65-year-old patient that has transferred into your care from another provider
presents with a history of migraine headaches. She is on Tylenol with codeine for
treatment of these headaches but nothing for abortive therapy. The GNP understands
that a good agent to prescribe for her for abortive therapy is:
ketorolac (toradol) 100 mg IM
, amitriptyline (Elavil) 100 mg PO
sumatriptan (Imitrex) 6 mg IM
ergotamine (Ergostat) 2 mg SL - correct answer ergotamine (Ergostat) 2 mg SL
Ergotamine sublinginal at 2 mg is the correct dose of abortive therapy for migraine
headaches. Ketorolac is give 30-60mg IM for pain, but does not help with abortive
therapy. Sumatriptan is given subcutaneously (SC) or PO, not IM and is a good
medication for abortive migraine therapy. Amitriptyline is not used in abortive therapy.
Of the following, which is the body system that is responsible for protecting the organs
as well as allowing the body to move?
Nervous.
Skeletal.
Muscular.
Circulatory. - correct answer Skeletal
Update ) with Verified Answers
100 % Correct [Grade A]
Which of the following is NOT a sign of depression in an older adult?
She neglects personal grooming.
She has difficulty concentrating.
She often becomes lost even in familiar places.
She worries about lapses in memory. - correct answer She often becomes lost even
in familiar places.
Older adults who are depressed may have trouble concentrating or may have memory
lapses. They often express concern about these lapses. Depression may lead to
neglect of personal grooming as well. Depression does not lead to patients being
disoriented or becoming easily lost. These symptoms are more often associated with
dementia.
,Change can be scary to anyone, but may be especially hard to deal with in the elderly
population. According to the Lewin Theory of Change, which of the following is the
second step?
Freezing.
Resisting.
Unfreezing
Change. - correct answer Change.
The Lewin Theory of Change represents three steps with regard to change. These are:
Unfreezing - During this step, the individual realizes change is necessary and mentally
prepares himself to do so. Change - Self-explanatory. Freezing (or refreezing) - Once
the change has taken place, the individual regains a sense of stability or normalcy.
Which medication can cause urinary incontinence by relaxing the internal urethral
sphincter and is used to treat BPH for this reason?
librium, a benzodiazepine
,furosemide, a diuretic
prazosin, an alpha-adrenergic antagonist
amitripylline, a tricyclic antidepressant - correct answer prazosin, an alpha-
adrenergic antagonist
This is not a good medication to use with a woman who has continence issues. These
medication s potentially increase the risk of postural hypotension in the older adult, as
well. Benzodiazepines cause alteration in sensorium and can lead to functional urinary
incontinence. Diuretics increase frequency of voiding and volume of urine. Tricyclic
antidepressants cause urinary retention, overflow incontinence, and alteration in
sensorium
A 65-year-old patient that has transferred into your care from another provider
presents with a history of migraine headaches. She is on Tylenol with codeine for
treatment of these headaches but nothing for abortive therapy. The GNP understands
that a good agent to prescribe for her for abortive therapy is:
ketorolac (toradol) 100 mg IM
, amitriptyline (Elavil) 100 mg PO
sumatriptan (Imitrex) 6 mg IM
ergotamine (Ergostat) 2 mg SL - correct answer ergotamine (Ergostat) 2 mg SL
Ergotamine sublinginal at 2 mg is the correct dose of abortive therapy for migraine
headaches. Ketorolac is give 30-60mg IM for pain, but does not help with abortive
therapy. Sumatriptan is given subcutaneously (SC) or PO, not IM and is a good
medication for abortive migraine therapy. Amitriptyline is not used in abortive therapy.
Of the following, which is the body system that is responsible for protecting the organs
as well as allowing the body to move?
Nervous.
Skeletal.
Muscular.
Circulatory. - correct answer Skeletal
