HEALTH RN EXAM – QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS
| PLUS RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE
Core Domains
* Medical-Surgical Nursing
* Pharmacology and Parenteral Therapies
* Maternal-Newborn Nursing
* Pediatric Nursing
* Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing
* Professional Practice and Legal Ethics
* Community Health Nursing
* Pathophysiology and Diagnostics
Introduction
*The purpose of this examination is to evaluate the clinical proficiency, theoretical
knowledge, and critical thinking capabilities of Registered Nurse candidates. This assessment
covers a comprehensive range of nursing disciplines, ensuring the practitioner is prepared
for real-world clinical environments. Through a series of multiple-choice and complex
scenario-based questions, the exam tests the ability to synthesize patient data, apply
evidence-based interventions, and adhere to strict ethical and legal standards. Mastery of
these materials demonstrates a commitment to patient safety, clinical excellence, and the
ability to make sound, independent decisions in high-stakes healthcare settings.*
Section One: Questions 1–100
1. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected hypothyroidism. Which finding is
consistent with this diagnosis? A. Tachycardia B. Heat intolerance C. Weight gain D.
Exophthalmos C. Weight gain Explanation: Hypothyroidism results in a
slowed metabolic rate, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain,
constipation, and cold intolerance.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin. Which assessment finding requires the
nurse to withhold the medication? A. Apical heart rate of 52 beats per minute B.
Potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg D. Respiratory rate
of 16 breaths per minute A. Apical heart rate of 52 beats per minute
Explanation: Digoxin should be withheld if the apical pulse is less than 60 beats per
minute in an adult due to the risk of bradycardia.
,3. Which legal document allows a competent client to appoint another person to make
healthcare decisions if they become incapacitated? A. Living will B. Durable power of
attorney for healthcare C. Do-not-resuscitate order D. Informed consent form B.
Durable power of attorney for healthcare Explanation: A durable power of
attorney for healthcare designates a specific proxy to make medical decisions on
behalf of the client when they are unable to do so.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. The nurse notes continuous bubbling
in the water seal chamber. What action should the nurse take? A. Increase the
suction pressure B. Clamp the chest tube immediately C. Check the system for an air
leak D. Document the finding as normal C. Check the system for an air leak
Explanation: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in
the system, which must be identified and corrected.
5. When assessing a client with a history of heart failure, which symptom is the most
indicative of pulmonary edema? A. Pedal edema B. Productive cough with pink-
tinged frothy sputum C. Jugular vein distention D. Increased appetite B.
Productive cough with pink-tinged frothy sputum Explanation: Pink-tinged frothy
sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid accumulation in the
alveoli.
6. A client is prescribed phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Which food
should the nurse instruct the client to avoid? A. Cottage cheese B. Aged cheddar
cheese C. Fresh apples D. White rice B. Aged cheddar cheese Explanation:
MAOIs interact with tyramine-rich foods, such as aged cheeses, leading to a
hypertensive crisis.
7. What is the primary purpose of using an incentive spirometer postoperatively? A. To
measure total lung capacity B. To improve oxygen saturation C. To prevent atelectasis
D. To deliver aerosolized medication C. To prevent atelectasis Explanation:
Incentive spirometry encourages deep breathing, which helps expand the lungs and
prevent alveolar collapse (atelectasis) following surgery.
8. A nurse is caring for a toddler. Which developmental milestone is expected at 18
months of age? A. Walking without help B. Speaking in three-word sentences C.
Riding a tricycle D. Drawing a circle A. Walking without help Explanation:
Most toddlers achieve the milestone of walking independently between 12 and 18
months of age.
9. Which nursing action is a priority when a client experiences a grand mal seizure? A.
Restrain the client to prevent injury B. Insert a tongue blade into the mouth C.
Protect the client's head and turn to the side D. Attempt to administer oral
medication C. Protect the client's head and turn to the side Explanation: The
, primary goal during a seizure is to maintain a patent airway and prevent injury by
padding the head and placing the client in a side-lying position.
10. A client is diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which clinical manifestation
should the nurse expect? A. Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia B. Obesity and
hypertension C. Decreased thirst and hunger D. Rapid weight gain A. Polyuria,
polydipsia, and polyphagia Explanation: Type 1 diabetes is characterized by these
three classic symptoms resulting from insulin deficiency and hyperglycemia.
11. A nurse is planning care for a client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer. Which intervention
is appropriate? A. Massaging the reddened area B. Cleaning the wound with
hydrogen peroxide C. Providing a high-protein, high-calorie diet D. Keeping the
wound dry by using heat lamps C. Providing a high-protein, high-calorie diet
Explanation: Protein and adequate calories are essential for tissue repair and wound
healing in clients with pressure ulcers.
12. Which statement regarding the administration of blood products is correct? A. Use a
24-gauge needle for infusion B. Use 0.45% normal saline to flush the line C. Remain
with the client during the first 15 minutes of the infusion D. Warm the blood in a
microwave to prevent hypothermia C. Remain with the client during the first 15
minutes of the infusion Explanation: Most transfusion reactions occur within the
first 15 minutes; therefore, close monitoring is essential.
13. A client presents with symptoms of panic disorder. Which intervention is most
appropriate during an acute panic attack? A. Encourage the client to discuss the
cause of the panic B. Provide a calm, quiet environment and stay with the client C.
Teach the client relaxation breathing techniques immediately D. Administer a PRN
sedative without assessment B. Provide a calm, quiet environment and stay with
the client Explanation: During a panic attack, the client's ability to learn is
impaired; staying with the client provides safety and reduces anxiety.
14. Which position is recommended for a client undergoing a lumbar puncture? A. Prone
with a pillow under the abdomen B. Side-lying with the knees drawn up to the
abdomen C. Sitting upright with the head tilted back D. Supine without a pillow
B. Side-lying with the knees drawn up to the abdomen Explanation: This position,
often called the fetal position, widens the spaces between the vertebrae, allowing for
easier needle insertion.
15. A nurse is educating a client on the use of warfarin. Which blood test is used to
monitor the effectiveness of this therapy? A. PTT B. INR C. Platelet count D. Bleeding
time B. INR Explanation: The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the
standard test used to monitor warfarin therapy.
| PLUS RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE
Core Domains
* Medical-Surgical Nursing
* Pharmacology and Parenteral Therapies
* Maternal-Newborn Nursing
* Pediatric Nursing
* Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing
* Professional Practice and Legal Ethics
* Community Health Nursing
* Pathophysiology and Diagnostics
Introduction
*The purpose of this examination is to evaluate the clinical proficiency, theoretical
knowledge, and critical thinking capabilities of Registered Nurse candidates. This assessment
covers a comprehensive range of nursing disciplines, ensuring the practitioner is prepared
for real-world clinical environments. Through a series of multiple-choice and complex
scenario-based questions, the exam tests the ability to synthesize patient data, apply
evidence-based interventions, and adhere to strict ethical and legal standards. Mastery of
these materials demonstrates a commitment to patient safety, clinical excellence, and the
ability to make sound, independent decisions in high-stakes healthcare settings.*
Section One: Questions 1–100
1. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected hypothyroidism. Which finding is
consistent with this diagnosis? A. Tachycardia B. Heat intolerance C. Weight gain D.
Exophthalmos C. Weight gain Explanation: Hypothyroidism results in a
slowed metabolic rate, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain,
constipation, and cold intolerance.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin. Which assessment finding requires the
nurse to withhold the medication? A. Apical heart rate of 52 beats per minute B.
Potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg D. Respiratory rate
of 16 breaths per minute A. Apical heart rate of 52 beats per minute
Explanation: Digoxin should be withheld if the apical pulse is less than 60 beats per
minute in an adult due to the risk of bradycardia.
,3. Which legal document allows a competent client to appoint another person to make
healthcare decisions if they become incapacitated? A. Living will B. Durable power of
attorney for healthcare C. Do-not-resuscitate order D. Informed consent form B.
Durable power of attorney for healthcare Explanation: A durable power of
attorney for healthcare designates a specific proxy to make medical decisions on
behalf of the client when they are unable to do so.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. The nurse notes continuous bubbling
in the water seal chamber. What action should the nurse take? A. Increase the
suction pressure B. Clamp the chest tube immediately C. Check the system for an air
leak D. Document the finding as normal C. Check the system for an air leak
Explanation: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in
the system, which must be identified and corrected.
5. When assessing a client with a history of heart failure, which symptom is the most
indicative of pulmonary edema? A. Pedal edema B. Productive cough with pink-
tinged frothy sputum C. Jugular vein distention D. Increased appetite B.
Productive cough with pink-tinged frothy sputum Explanation: Pink-tinged frothy
sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid accumulation in the
alveoli.
6. A client is prescribed phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Which food
should the nurse instruct the client to avoid? A. Cottage cheese B. Aged cheddar
cheese C. Fresh apples D. White rice B. Aged cheddar cheese Explanation:
MAOIs interact with tyramine-rich foods, such as aged cheeses, leading to a
hypertensive crisis.
7. What is the primary purpose of using an incentive spirometer postoperatively? A. To
measure total lung capacity B. To improve oxygen saturation C. To prevent atelectasis
D. To deliver aerosolized medication C. To prevent atelectasis Explanation:
Incentive spirometry encourages deep breathing, which helps expand the lungs and
prevent alveolar collapse (atelectasis) following surgery.
8. A nurse is caring for a toddler. Which developmental milestone is expected at 18
months of age? A. Walking without help B. Speaking in three-word sentences C.
Riding a tricycle D. Drawing a circle A. Walking without help Explanation:
Most toddlers achieve the milestone of walking independently between 12 and 18
months of age.
9. Which nursing action is a priority when a client experiences a grand mal seizure? A.
Restrain the client to prevent injury B. Insert a tongue blade into the mouth C.
Protect the client's head and turn to the side D. Attempt to administer oral
medication C. Protect the client's head and turn to the side Explanation: The
, primary goal during a seizure is to maintain a patent airway and prevent injury by
padding the head and placing the client in a side-lying position.
10. A client is diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which clinical manifestation
should the nurse expect? A. Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia B. Obesity and
hypertension C. Decreased thirst and hunger D. Rapid weight gain A. Polyuria,
polydipsia, and polyphagia Explanation: Type 1 diabetes is characterized by these
three classic symptoms resulting from insulin deficiency and hyperglycemia.
11. A nurse is planning care for a client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer. Which intervention
is appropriate? A. Massaging the reddened area B. Cleaning the wound with
hydrogen peroxide C. Providing a high-protein, high-calorie diet D. Keeping the
wound dry by using heat lamps C. Providing a high-protein, high-calorie diet
Explanation: Protein and adequate calories are essential for tissue repair and wound
healing in clients with pressure ulcers.
12. Which statement regarding the administration of blood products is correct? A. Use a
24-gauge needle for infusion B. Use 0.45% normal saline to flush the line C. Remain
with the client during the first 15 minutes of the infusion D. Warm the blood in a
microwave to prevent hypothermia C. Remain with the client during the first 15
minutes of the infusion Explanation: Most transfusion reactions occur within the
first 15 minutes; therefore, close monitoring is essential.
13. A client presents with symptoms of panic disorder. Which intervention is most
appropriate during an acute panic attack? A. Encourage the client to discuss the
cause of the panic B. Provide a calm, quiet environment and stay with the client C.
Teach the client relaxation breathing techniques immediately D. Administer a PRN
sedative without assessment B. Provide a calm, quiet environment and stay with
the client Explanation: During a panic attack, the client's ability to learn is
impaired; staying with the client provides safety and reduces anxiety.
14. Which position is recommended for a client undergoing a lumbar puncture? A. Prone
with a pillow under the abdomen B. Side-lying with the knees drawn up to the
abdomen C. Sitting upright with the head tilted back D. Supine without a pillow
B. Side-lying with the knees drawn up to the abdomen Explanation: This position,
often called the fetal position, widens the spaces between the vertebrae, allowing for
easier needle insertion.
15. A nurse is educating a client on the use of warfarin. Which blood test is used to
monitor the effectiveness of this therapy? A. PTT B. INR C. Platelet count D. Bleeding
time B. INR Explanation: The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the
standard test used to monitor warfarin therapy.
