Answers) - Regis 2026/2027
Final Exam: NU 664C / NU664C (Latest Update 2026/2027) Family Psychiatric Mental Health I | Review Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Final Exam: NU 664C / NU664C (Latest Update
2026/2027) Family Psychiatric Mental Health I |
Review Questions & Answers | Grade A |
100% Correct (Verified Answers) - Regis
2026/2027
NU 664C / NU664C - Regis University
75 100% 2026/2027
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Psychiatric Assessment & Diagnosis Child, Adolescent & Family Psychiatry
Psychopharmacology Ethical, Legal & Professional Standards
Psychotherapy & Evidence-Based Interventions Comprehensive Review & Verified Answers
COVER PAGE - 1
,SECTION 1 | Psychiatric Assessment and Diagnosis | Q1-Q15 | Final Exam: NU 664C / NU664C (Latest Update
2026/2027) Family Psychiatric Mental Health I | Review Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified
Answers) - Regis 2026/2027 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 75
Q1. A 34-year-old woman presents to the outpatient psychiatric clinic with a two-month history
of persistent sadness, anhedonia, and hypersomnia. She reports feeling worthless and has
missed multiple days of work. The PMHNP administers the PHQ-9 and her score is 18. Which
interpretation of this screening result is most accurate?
A. The score indicates minimal depression, and she likely has a temporary adjustment issue
B. The score reflects moderate-severe depression, warranting immediate diagnostic
interview and treatment planning
C. The score suggests she is malingering to obtain disability benefits
D. The score is invalid because the PHQ-9 cannot be used in outpatient psychiatric settings
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A PHQ-9 score of 18 falls in the moderately severe range (15-19), supporting a diagnosis of major depressive
disorder and indicating the need for clinical interview, risk assessment, and treatment initiation. A score of 0-4
would represent minimal depression, making option A incorrect. The PHQ-9 is a well-validated tool for
outpatient screening, making option D incorrect.
Final Exam: NU 664C / NU664C (Latest Update 2026/2027) Family Psychiatric Mental Health I | Review Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified
Answers) - Regis 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 99
,SECTION 1 | Psychiatric Assessment and Diagnosis | Q1-Q15 | Final Exam: NU 664C / NU664C (Latest Update
2026/2027) Family Psychiatric Mental Health I | Review Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified
Answers) - Regis 2026/2027 2026/2027
Q2 Question 2 of 75
Q2. A 28-year-old male graduate student reports excessive worry about his academic
performance, muscle tension, and restlessness for the past eight months. He difficulty
concentrating and has been irritable. The PMHNP administers the GAD-7 and the score is 14.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Reassure the patient that his symptoms are normal for graduate school and schedule a
follow-up in six months
B. Initiate a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor and schedule follow-up in four weeks to
assess response
C. Refer the patient immediately for inpatient psychiatric hospitalization given the severity of worry
D. Order a comprehensive metabolic panel and brain MRI before considering any psychiatric
treatment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A GAD-7 score of 14 indicates severe generalized anxiety disorder, and first-line treatment includes SSRI
therapy combined with psychotherapy such as CBT. Reassurance alone (option A) is insufficient for a score in
the severe range. Inpatient hospitalization (option C) is not indicated for generalized anxiety without suicidal
ideation or acute safety concerns.
Final Exam: NU 664C / NU664C (Latest Update 2026/2027) Family Psychiatric Mental Health I | Review Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified
Answers) - Regis 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 99
, SECTION 1 | Psychiatric Assessment and Diagnosis | Q1-Q15 | Final Exam: NU 664C / NU664C (Latest Update
2026/2027) Family Psychiatric Mental Health I | Review Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified
Answers) - Regis 2026/2027 2026/2027
Q3 Question 3 of 75
Q3. A 45-year-old woman with a history of major depressive disorder presents for a follow-up
visit and endorses passive suicidal ideation without a specific plan. She denies access to
firearms and has no history of prior attempts. The PMHNP uses the Columbia-Suicide Severity
Rating Scale (C-SSRS). Which clinical decision is most appropriate based on her
presentation?
A. Discharge her with a referral to a support group since she has no specific plan
B. Initiate an SSRI and develop a safety plan with crisis resources, scheduling close
follow-up within one week
C. Involuntarily hospitalize her immediately since any mention of suicidal ideation requires it
D. Document the ideation but take no further action as passive thoughts are not clinically significant
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Passive suicidal ideation without plan or intent warrants a safety plan, close outpatient follow-up, and initiation
of appropriate treatment. Option C is incorrect because involuntary hospitalization requires imminent risk, not
simply the presence of ideation. Option D is dangerous because even passive ideation increases risk and
requires clinical intervention and documentation.
Final Exam: NU 664C / NU664C (Latest Update 2026/2027) Family Psychiatric Mental Health I | Review Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified
Answers) - Regis 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 99
Final Exam: NU 664C / NU664C (Latest Update 2026/2027) Family Psychiatric Mental Health I | Review Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Final Exam: NU 664C / NU664C (Latest Update
2026/2027) Family Psychiatric Mental Health I |
Review Questions & Answers | Grade A |
100% Correct (Verified Answers) - Regis
2026/2027
NU 664C / NU664C - Regis University
75 100% 2026/2027
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Psychiatric Assessment & Diagnosis Child, Adolescent & Family Psychiatry
Psychopharmacology Ethical, Legal & Professional Standards
Psychotherapy & Evidence-Based Interventions Comprehensive Review & Verified Answers
COVER PAGE - 1
,SECTION 1 | Psychiatric Assessment and Diagnosis | Q1-Q15 | Final Exam: NU 664C / NU664C (Latest Update
2026/2027) Family Psychiatric Mental Health I | Review Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified
Answers) - Regis 2026/2027 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 75
Q1. A 34-year-old woman presents to the outpatient psychiatric clinic with a two-month history
of persistent sadness, anhedonia, and hypersomnia. She reports feeling worthless and has
missed multiple days of work. The PMHNP administers the PHQ-9 and her score is 18. Which
interpretation of this screening result is most accurate?
A. The score indicates minimal depression, and she likely has a temporary adjustment issue
B. The score reflects moderate-severe depression, warranting immediate diagnostic
interview and treatment planning
C. The score suggests she is malingering to obtain disability benefits
D. The score is invalid because the PHQ-9 cannot be used in outpatient psychiatric settings
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A PHQ-9 score of 18 falls in the moderately severe range (15-19), supporting a diagnosis of major depressive
disorder and indicating the need for clinical interview, risk assessment, and treatment initiation. A score of 0-4
would represent minimal depression, making option A incorrect. The PHQ-9 is a well-validated tool for
outpatient screening, making option D incorrect.
Final Exam: NU 664C / NU664C (Latest Update 2026/2027) Family Psychiatric Mental Health I | Review Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified
Answers) - Regis 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 99
,SECTION 1 | Psychiatric Assessment and Diagnosis | Q1-Q15 | Final Exam: NU 664C / NU664C (Latest Update
2026/2027) Family Psychiatric Mental Health I | Review Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified
Answers) - Regis 2026/2027 2026/2027
Q2 Question 2 of 75
Q2. A 28-year-old male graduate student reports excessive worry about his academic
performance, muscle tension, and restlessness for the past eight months. He difficulty
concentrating and has been irritable. The PMHNP administers the GAD-7 and the score is 14.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Reassure the patient that his symptoms are normal for graduate school and schedule a
follow-up in six months
B. Initiate a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor and schedule follow-up in four weeks to
assess response
C. Refer the patient immediately for inpatient psychiatric hospitalization given the severity of worry
D. Order a comprehensive metabolic panel and brain MRI before considering any psychiatric
treatment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A GAD-7 score of 14 indicates severe generalized anxiety disorder, and first-line treatment includes SSRI
therapy combined with psychotherapy such as CBT. Reassurance alone (option A) is insufficient for a score in
the severe range. Inpatient hospitalization (option C) is not indicated for generalized anxiety without suicidal
ideation or acute safety concerns.
Final Exam: NU 664C / NU664C (Latest Update 2026/2027) Family Psychiatric Mental Health I | Review Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified
Answers) - Regis 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 99
, SECTION 1 | Psychiatric Assessment and Diagnosis | Q1-Q15 | Final Exam: NU 664C / NU664C (Latest Update
2026/2027) Family Psychiatric Mental Health I | Review Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified
Answers) - Regis 2026/2027 2026/2027
Q3 Question 3 of 75
Q3. A 45-year-old woman with a history of major depressive disorder presents for a follow-up
visit and endorses passive suicidal ideation without a specific plan. She denies access to
firearms and has no history of prior attempts. The PMHNP uses the Columbia-Suicide Severity
Rating Scale (C-SSRS). Which clinical decision is most appropriate based on her
presentation?
A. Discharge her with a referral to a support group since she has no specific plan
B. Initiate an SSRI and develop a safety plan with crisis resources, scheduling close
follow-up within one week
C. Involuntarily hospitalize her immediately since any mention of suicidal ideation requires it
D. Document the ideation but take no further action as passive thoughts are not clinically significant
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Passive suicidal ideation without plan or intent warrants a safety plan, close outpatient follow-up, and initiation
of appropriate treatment. Option C is incorrect because involuntary hospitalization requires imminent risk, not
simply the presence of ideation. Option D is dangerous because even passive ideation increases risk and
requires clinical intervention and documentation.
Final Exam: NU 664C / NU664C (Latest Update 2026/2027) Family Psychiatric Mental Health I | Review Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified
Answers) - Regis 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 99
