Chronic Illness –Actual Questions & Answers
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Q1. An 81-year-old client with type 2 diabetes is
admitted with pneumonia. The client reports feeling
"too sick to eat," has had vomiting twice this morning,
and says, "I didn't take my diabetes pills today because I
figured I didn't need them." Which nursing action is the
PRIORITY?
A) Encourage the client to take small sips of clear liquids
as tolerated
B) Reinforce the importance of daily foot inspections
while hospitalized
C) Notify the provider about the missed diabetes
medication and inability to tolerate PO intake
D) Educate the client on the importance of annual
influenza and pneumonia vaccines
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The priority is notifying the provider about the
missed medication and inability to tolerate oral intake.
Vomiting with inability to eat places the client at risk for
,hypoglycemia (if oral agents were held) or hyperglycemia
and diabetic ketoacidosis (if insulin was held). The
provider needs to adjust the diabetes regimen and
consider alternative medications (IV fluids, insulin) .
Q2. The nurse is reinforcing teaching about
hypoglycemia management with an older adult who
lives alone and has type 2 diabetes. Which client
statement indicates CORRECT understanding?
A) "If I feel shaky and sweaty, I'll drink a cup of fat-free
milk and check my sugar again in about 15 minutes."
B) "If I get confused or dizzy, I'll just lay down and rest. It
usually passes by itself."
C) "If my blood sugar is low, I'll take my diabetes pill with
orange juice so it works faster."
D) "If I'm not hungry, I should avoid treating low blood
sugar so I don't gain weight."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The "15/15 rule" is correct: treat
hypoglycemia with 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate
(fat-free milk, juice, glucose tablets, soda) and recheck
blood sugar in 15 minutes. Confusion/dizziness from
, hypoglycemia will NOT resolve on its own and can
progress to seizure or coma. Taking diabetes pills during
hypoglycemia is inappropriate .
Q3. A nurse reviews laboratory results for a 77-year-old
client with diabetes. The hemoglobin A1C is 7%. Which
interpretation is most accurate?
A) Average blood glucose has been around 126 mg/dL,
indicating excellent control
B) Average blood glucose has been around 154 mg/dL,
which reflects moderate control
C) The result only reflects blood glucose over the last 24
hours and is therefore not clinically useful
D) The result is expected in older adults and requires no
further evaluation or teaching
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An A1C of 7% corresponds to an average
blood glucose of approximately 154 mg/dL. This reflects
moderate control but still some hyperglycemia. A1C
reflects approximately 3 months of blood glucose control,
not 24 hours. While individual targets may vary based on