NSG 432 Exam 1 V2 | NSG 432 Maternal-
Newborn Nursing / OB/GYN | Actual Q&A
with Rationale (NSG432 Exam 1) | Grand
Canyon University
1. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client in her first trimester. Which of the following findings
should the nurse document as presumptive signs of pregnancy? (Select All That Apply)
A. Amenorrhea
B. Positive pregnancy test
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Goodell’s sign
E. Breast tenderness
F. Fatigue
Correct Answer: A, C, E, F
Presumptive signs are subjective experiences reported by the woman, such as
amenorrhea, nausea, and breast changes. Probable signs are objective findings observed by
the examiner, including a positive pregnancy test and Goodell’s sign. Accurate
documentation requires distinguishing between subjective feelings and clinical findings to
properly stage the diagnostic progression of pregnancy.
,2. A nurse is calculating a client’s expected date of delivery (EDD) using Naegele’s rule. The
client’s last menstrual period (LMP) began on October 10th. What is the calculated EDD?
A. July 10th
B. July 3rd
C. January 17th
D. July 17th
Correct Answer: D
Naegele’s rule is calculated by subtracting 3 months from the first day of the last
menstrual period and adding 7 days and 1 year. For an LMP of October 10th, subtracting 3
months leads to July, and adding 7 days results in July 17th. This method assumes a
standard 28-day cycle and is the clinical standard for estimating delivery dates.
3. Using the GTPAL system, how should the nurse document a client who is currently 20
weeks pregnant, has a 3-year-old child born at 39 weeks, and had a miscarriage at 10 weeks?
A. G3 T1 P0 A1 L1
B. G2 T1 P0 A1 L1
C. G3 T2 P0 A0 L1
D. G2 T1 P0 A0 L2
Correct Answer: A
, The client is G3 because she has been pregnant three times: the current pregnancy, the 3-
year-old, and the miscarriage. The 3-year-old represents T1 (term) and the miscarriage
represents A1 (abortion/miscarriage before 20 weeks). Since the current pregnancy is
ongoing, the count results in G3, T1, P0, A1, L1.
4. A client at 32 weeks gestation is admitted with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which
of the following conditions should the nurse suspect?
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Preterm labor
D. Vasa previa
Correct Answer: A
Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester is the hallmark sign
of placenta previa. Conversely, abruptio placentae typically presents with painful bleeding
and a board-like, tender abdomen. It is critical for the nurse to avoid vaginal examinations
in these clients until the placental location is confirmed by ultrasound.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate IV for preeclampsia. Which
assessment finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
A. Respiratory rate of 10/min
B. Blood pressure 150/96 mmHg
C. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr
Newborn Nursing / OB/GYN | Actual Q&A
with Rationale (NSG432 Exam 1) | Grand
Canyon University
1. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client in her first trimester. Which of the following findings
should the nurse document as presumptive signs of pregnancy? (Select All That Apply)
A. Amenorrhea
B. Positive pregnancy test
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Goodell’s sign
E. Breast tenderness
F. Fatigue
Correct Answer: A, C, E, F
Presumptive signs are subjective experiences reported by the woman, such as
amenorrhea, nausea, and breast changes. Probable signs are objective findings observed by
the examiner, including a positive pregnancy test and Goodell’s sign. Accurate
documentation requires distinguishing between subjective feelings and clinical findings to
properly stage the diagnostic progression of pregnancy.
,2. A nurse is calculating a client’s expected date of delivery (EDD) using Naegele’s rule. The
client’s last menstrual period (LMP) began on October 10th. What is the calculated EDD?
A. July 10th
B. July 3rd
C. January 17th
D. July 17th
Correct Answer: D
Naegele’s rule is calculated by subtracting 3 months from the first day of the last
menstrual period and adding 7 days and 1 year. For an LMP of October 10th, subtracting 3
months leads to July, and adding 7 days results in July 17th. This method assumes a
standard 28-day cycle and is the clinical standard for estimating delivery dates.
3. Using the GTPAL system, how should the nurse document a client who is currently 20
weeks pregnant, has a 3-year-old child born at 39 weeks, and had a miscarriage at 10 weeks?
A. G3 T1 P0 A1 L1
B. G2 T1 P0 A1 L1
C. G3 T2 P0 A0 L1
D. G2 T1 P0 A0 L2
Correct Answer: A
, The client is G3 because she has been pregnant three times: the current pregnancy, the 3-
year-old, and the miscarriage. The 3-year-old represents T1 (term) and the miscarriage
represents A1 (abortion/miscarriage before 20 weeks). Since the current pregnancy is
ongoing, the count results in G3, T1, P0, A1, L1.
4. A client at 32 weeks gestation is admitted with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which
of the following conditions should the nurse suspect?
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Preterm labor
D. Vasa previa
Correct Answer: A
Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester is the hallmark sign
of placenta previa. Conversely, abruptio placentae typically presents with painful bleeding
and a board-like, tender abdomen. It is critical for the nurse to avoid vaginal examinations
in these clients until the placental location is confirmed by ultrasound.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate IV for preeclampsia. Which
assessment finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
A. Respiratory rate of 10/min
B. Blood pressure 150/96 mmHg
C. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr
