NR 566 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY FOR CARE OF THE FAMILY FINAL EXAM TEST BANK COMPLETE 200 PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS AND DETAILED RATIONALES COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW COVERING: ANTICONVULSANTS, MIGRAINE THERAPY, ANTIBIOTICS FOR STIS, ALZHEIMER'

NR 566 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY FOR CARE OF THE FAMILY FINAL EXAM TEST BANK COMPLETE 200 PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS AND DETAILED RATIONALES COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW COVERING: ANTICONVULSANTS, MIGRAINE THERAPY, ANTIBIOTICS FOR STIS, ALZHEIMER'S DISEASE MEDICATIONS, PSYCHIATRIC PHARMACOLOGY, AND MORE 1. A patient with epilepsy is started on phenytoin. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor for determining therapeutic effectiveness? A. Serum creatinine B. Complete blood count C. Plasma drug level D. Liver function tests Answer: C - Plasma drug level Rationale: Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic window, and plasma drug levels must be monitored to ensure therapeutic effectiveness (typically 10-20 mcg/mL) while avoiding toxicity. Seizure absence during the trial period also indicates effectiveness. ________________________________________ 2. Which anticonvulsant is recommended as adjunctive therapy for partial seizures with or without secondary generalization? A. Carbamazepine B. Lamotrigine C. Phenobarbital D. Valproic acid Answer: B - Lamotrigine Rationale: Lamotrigine is specifically indicated as adjunctive therapy for partial seizures with or without secondary generalization. It is also effective for generalized seizures and has a favorable side effect profile. ________________________________________ 3. A patient with frequent migraines asks about preventive therapy. Which medication class is considered first-line for migraine prophylaxis? A. Calcium channel blockers B. Beta-blockers C. Tricyclic antidepressants D. Anticonvulsants Answer: B - Beta-blockers Rationale: Metoprolol and propranolol (beta-blockers) are first-line preventive medications for migraines. They reduce the frequency and severity of migraine attacks through vascular and neurological mechanisms. ________________________________________ 4. A patient experiences the first sign of a migraine attack. Which type of therapy should be initiated immediately? A. Preventive therapy B. Abortive therapy C. Maintenance therapy D. Prophylactic therapy Answer: B - Abortive therapy Rationale: Abortive medications are used at the first sign of a migraine attack to stop or reduce its progression. These include NSAIDs, opioids, and migraine-specific medications like triptans and ergot alkaloids. ________________________________________ 5. What is the first-line abortive treatment for an acute, mild to moderate migraine without nausea or vomiting? A. Sumatriptan B. Naproxen and aspirin C. Metoclopramide D. Dihydroergotamine Answer: B - Naproxen and aspirin Rationale: For mild to moderate migraines without nausea or vomiting, NSAIDs like naproxen and aspirin are first-line treatment. They are effective and have fewer side effects than triptans. ________________________________________ 6. A patient is diagnosed with uncomplicated chlamydia. Which medication requires only a single oral dose? A. Doxycycline 100mg BID for 7 days B. Azithromycin 1000mg once C. Erythromycin 500mg QID for 7 days D. Levofloxacin 500mg daily for 7 days Answer: B - Azithromycin 1000mg once Rationale: Azithromycin 1000mg as a single oral dose is first-line treatment for chlamydia. It is preferred for patients who may have difficulty with medication adherence to a 7-day regimen. ________________________________________ 7. A patient with chlamydia cannot tolerate azithromycin. Which alternative regimen is taken BID for 7 days? A. Azithromycin 500mg BID B. Doxycycline 100mg BID C. Erythromycin 250mg BID D. Tetracycline 500mg BID Answer: B - Doxycycline 100mg BID Rationale: Doxycycline 100mg BID for 7 days is the alternative first-line treatment for chlamydia. It is highly effective but requires adherence to the full 7-day course. ________________________________________ 8. What is the recommended IM treatment for uncomplicated gonorrhea? A. Penicillin G 2.4 million units B. Ceftriaxone 500mg C. Ciprofloxacin 500mg D. Azithromycin 2g Answer: B - Ceftriaxone 500mg Rationale: Ceftriaxone 500mg IM is the recommended treatment for uncomplicated gonorrhea. Due to increasing antibiotic resistance, this is the preferred first-line therapy. ________________________________________ 9. When treating gonorrhea with IM ceftriaxone, which additional medication is often prescribed concurrently? A. Metronidazole 500mg B. Azithromycin 1g C. Doxycycline 100mg BID D. Ciprofloxacin 500mg Answer: C - Doxycycline 100mg BID Rationale: Doxycycline 100mg BID is often added when treating gonorrhea to cover possible concurrent chlamydia infection, as co-infection is common. ________________________________________ 10. A non-pregnant patient is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis. What is the recommended treatment? A. Metronidazole 500mg BID for 7 days B. Fluconazole 150mg once C. Clindamycin 300mg QID for 7 days D. Metronidazole 2g single dose Answer: A - Metronidazole 500mg BID for 7 days Rationale: Metronidazole 500mg BID for 7 days is the first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis in non-pregnant patients. Alternative regimens include topical metronidazole or clindamycin. ________________________________________ 11. A pregnant patient has bacterial vaginosis. Which treatment is appropriate? A. Metronidazole 500mg BID orally for 7 days B. Vaginal metronidazole 2% for 7 days C. Metronidazole 2g single oral dose D. Clindamycin 300mg QID orally for 7 days