NU 578 Exam 2 – University of South
Alabama Questions And Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationale 2027
Q&A| Instant Download Pdf
1. A nurse practitioner is evaluating a patient with resistant
hypertension. Which secondary cause should be considered first
because it is relatively common and potentially treatable?
A. Essential hypertension
B. Primary aldosteronism
C. Viral myocarditis
D. Rheumatic heart disease
Answer: B. Primary aldosteronism
Rationale: Primary aldosteronism is one of the most common causes of
secondary hypertension, particularly in patients with resistant
hypertension, hypokalemia, or adrenal incidentalomas. Early recognition
allows targeted treatment that may significantly improve blood
pressure control.
, 2. Which laboratory value is most suggestive of iron deficiency
anemia?
A. Elevated ferritin
B. Increased transferrin saturation
C. Low serum ferritin
D. Elevated vitamin B12
Answer: C. Low serum ferritin
Rationale: Serum ferritin reflects iron stores and is typically the earliest
and most sensitive indicator of iron deficiency. Low ferritin strongly
supports the diagnosis unless chronic inflammation is present.
3. A patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 4.
What is the primary purpose of anticoagulation therapy?
A. Reduce ventricular rate
B. Restore sinus rhythm
C. Prevent thromboembolic stroke
D. Eliminate premature ventricular contractions
Answer: C. Prevent thromboembolic stroke
,Rationale: Anticoagulation significantly reduces the risk of ischemic
stroke caused by emboli originating from the left atrial appendage in
patients with atrial fibrillation.
4. Which medication class is considered first-line therapy for heart
failure with reduced ejection fraction?
A. Calcium channel blockers
B. ACE inhibitors or ARNI therapy
C. Class IC antiarrhythmics
D. Nitrates alone
Answer: B. ACE inhibitors or ARNI therapy
Rationale: ACE inhibitors and angiotensin receptor-neprilysin inhibitors
improve survival, reduce hospitalizations, and slow disease progression
in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction.
5. Which finding is most characteristic of left-sided heart failure?
A. Peripheral edema only
B. Ascites
C. Pulmonary crackles and dyspnea
D. Hepatomegaly
, Answer: C. Pulmonary crackles and dyspnea
Rationale: Left ventricular dysfunction leads to pulmonary congestion,
causing dyspnea, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, and
crackles upon lung auscultation.
6. Which electrolyte abnormality is commonly associated with loop
diuretic therapy?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypermagnesemia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase urinary potassium excretion, placing
patients at risk for hypokalemia and associated cardiac dysrhythmias.
7. Which ECG finding is diagnostic of atrial fibrillation?
A. Delta waves
B. Irregularly irregular rhythm without distinct P waves
Alabama Questions And Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationale 2027
Q&A| Instant Download Pdf
1. A nurse practitioner is evaluating a patient with resistant
hypertension. Which secondary cause should be considered first
because it is relatively common and potentially treatable?
A. Essential hypertension
B. Primary aldosteronism
C. Viral myocarditis
D. Rheumatic heart disease
Answer: B. Primary aldosteronism
Rationale: Primary aldosteronism is one of the most common causes of
secondary hypertension, particularly in patients with resistant
hypertension, hypokalemia, or adrenal incidentalomas. Early recognition
allows targeted treatment that may significantly improve blood
pressure control.
, 2. Which laboratory value is most suggestive of iron deficiency
anemia?
A. Elevated ferritin
B. Increased transferrin saturation
C. Low serum ferritin
D. Elevated vitamin B12
Answer: C. Low serum ferritin
Rationale: Serum ferritin reflects iron stores and is typically the earliest
and most sensitive indicator of iron deficiency. Low ferritin strongly
supports the diagnosis unless chronic inflammation is present.
3. A patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 4.
What is the primary purpose of anticoagulation therapy?
A. Reduce ventricular rate
B. Restore sinus rhythm
C. Prevent thromboembolic stroke
D. Eliminate premature ventricular contractions
Answer: C. Prevent thromboembolic stroke
,Rationale: Anticoagulation significantly reduces the risk of ischemic
stroke caused by emboli originating from the left atrial appendage in
patients with atrial fibrillation.
4. Which medication class is considered first-line therapy for heart
failure with reduced ejection fraction?
A. Calcium channel blockers
B. ACE inhibitors or ARNI therapy
C. Class IC antiarrhythmics
D. Nitrates alone
Answer: B. ACE inhibitors or ARNI therapy
Rationale: ACE inhibitors and angiotensin receptor-neprilysin inhibitors
improve survival, reduce hospitalizations, and slow disease progression
in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction.
5. Which finding is most characteristic of left-sided heart failure?
A. Peripheral edema only
B. Ascites
C. Pulmonary crackles and dyspnea
D. Hepatomegaly
, Answer: C. Pulmonary crackles and dyspnea
Rationale: Left ventricular dysfunction leads to pulmonary congestion,
causing dyspnea, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, and
crackles upon lung auscultation.
6. Which electrolyte abnormality is commonly associated with loop
diuretic therapy?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypermagnesemia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase urinary potassium excretion, placing
patients at risk for hypokalemia and associated cardiac dysrhythmias.
7. Which ECG finding is diagnostic of atrial fibrillation?
A. Delta waves
B. Irregularly irregular rhythm without distinct P waves
