KAPLAN BUDDLE EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES
2026 Q&A |STUDY GUIDE| INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
EXAM with Questions and Answers/Plus a Rationale
Updated 2026 A+/Instant Download PDF
EXAM COVERAGE
1. Management of Care and Ethical Practice
2. Safety and Infection Control
3. Health Promotion and Maintenance
4. Psychosocial Integrity
5. Basic Care and Comfort
6. Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
7. Reduction of Risk Potential
8. Physiological Adaptation
1. A nurse is caring for a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism. The client is tachypneic,
tachycardic, and has an SpO2 of 89% on room air. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Obtain a stat D-dimer and chest X-ray
B. Elevate the head of the bed and administer oxygen
C. Initiate a bolus of intravenous normal saline
D. Prepare the client for an emergent CT angiography
, Answer: B
Rationale: The priority in managing a suspected pulmonary embolism is stabilizing the client's
airway and oxygenation status. Elevating the head of the bed decreases work of breathing and
oxygen administration addresses the hypoxemia; diagnostic tests and fluids are secondary.
2. A client receiving a blood transfusion develops hives, itching, and flushing shortly after the
infusion begins. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer a PRN dose of diphenhydramine
B. Stop the transfusion and maintain the IV line with normal saline
C. Notify the healthcare provider of the findings
D. Slow the infusion rate and monitor for further reactions
Answer: B
Rationale: The client is experiencing an allergic transfusion reaction. The nurse must
immediately stop the transfusion to prevent further exposure to the allergen and maintain the
line with saline to keep access open, which is the standard safety protocol.
3. A client with type 1 diabetes is found unresponsive with a blood glucose level of 42 mg/dL. The
nurse is unable to access an IV site. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Attempt to force oral glucose gel into the client's mouth
B. Administer glucagon intramuscularly
C. Perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
D. Wait for the primary healthcare provider to arrive
Answer: B
Rationale: In the absence of IV access for dextrose, intramuscular glucagon is the indicated
treatment for severe hypoglycemia in an unconscious client. Oral intake is contraindicated due
to aspiration risk, and CPR is unnecessary as the client's airway and circulation are currently
intact.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with severe hyperkalemia. Which ECG change should the nurse be
most concerned about?
A. Prolonged PR interval
, B. Tall, peaked T waves
C. ST-segment depression
D. U waves
Answer: B
Rationale: Tall, peaked T waves are a hallmark ECG sign of hyperkalemia and indicate a high
risk for life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias. The other options are associated with
electrolyte imbalances or ischemia but are not the immediate indicator of cardiac crisis in
hyperkalemia.
5. A client post-thyroidectomy is experiencing laryngeal stridor. What is the priority nursing
intervention?
A. Administer a nebulized corticosteroid
B. Prepare for emergency intubation
C. Assess the surgical site for hematoma
D. Notify the surgeon and wait for orders
Answer: B
Rationale: Laryngeal stridor following thyroid surgery indicates severe airway obstruction,
likely due to edema or injury, which is a life-threatening emergency. Immediate airway
management via intubation takes precedence over assessment or notification.
6. A client in septic shock is receiving norepinephrine. Which clinical indicator best demonstrates
that the drug is having the desired effect?
A. A heart rate of 110 bpm
B. A mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 65 mmHg
C. Urine output of 15 mL/hour
D. Decreased central venous pressure
Answer: B
Rationale: Norepinephrine is a vasopressor used in septic shock to increase vascular resistance
and maintain perfusion. Achieving a target MAP of at least 65 mmHg is the standard clinical
goal for tissue perfusion, whereas the other options indicate ongoing shock or systemic stress.
, 7. A nurse is planning care for a client with neutropenia. Which action is essential?
A. Ensure the client maintains a high-fiber diet
B. Implement strict hand hygiene and limit visitors
C. Encourage the client to walk in public hallways
D. Administer a prophylactic antibiotic without an order
Answer: B
Rationale: Neutropenic clients are at extreme risk for opportunistic infections due to a
compromised immune system. Hand hygiene and visitor restriction are the primary nursing
interventions to prevent exposure to pathogens.
8. A client is prescribed phenytoin for seizure management. Which teaching point is most critical
for long-term adherence?
A. Taking the medication with food to avoid gastric upset
B. Performing frequent oral hygiene to prevent gingival hyperplasia
C. Stopping the medication if they feel seizure-free for one month
D. Reporting any vision changes to the ophthalmologist
Answer: B
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a common side effect of phenytoin, and poor oral hygiene can
lead to severe discomfort and secondary infections. While the other options are relevant,
gingival health requires active, consistent nursing intervention.
9. A nurse is assessing a client with a chest tube that has a water-seal drainage system. The nurse
notes constant bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What does this indicate?
A. The lung has successfully re-expanded
B. There is an air leak in the drainage system
C. The suction pressure is set correctly
D. The system is functioning normally
Answer: B
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES
2026 Q&A |STUDY GUIDE| INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
EXAM with Questions and Answers/Plus a Rationale
Updated 2026 A+/Instant Download PDF
EXAM COVERAGE
1. Management of Care and Ethical Practice
2. Safety and Infection Control
3. Health Promotion and Maintenance
4. Psychosocial Integrity
5. Basic Care and Comfort
6. Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
7. Reduction of Risk Potential
8. Physiological Adaptation
1. A nurse is caring for a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism. The client is tachypneic,
tachycardic, and has an SpO2 of 89% on room air. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Obtain a stat D-dimer and chest X-ray
B. Elevate the head of the bed and administer oxygen
C. Initiate a bolus of intravenous normal saline
D. Prepare the client for an emergent CT angiography
, Answer: B
Rationale: The priority in managing a suspected pulmonary embolism is stabilizing the client's
airway and oxygenation status. Elevating the head of the bed decreases work of breathing and
oxygen administration addresses the hypoxemia; diagnostic tests and fluids are secondary.
2. A client receiving a blood transfusion develops hives, itching, and flushing shortly after the
infusion begins. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer a PRN dose of diphenhydramine
B. Stop the transfusion and maintain the IV line with normal saline
C. Notify the healthcare provider of the findings
D. Slow the infusion rate and monitor for further reactions
Answer: B
Rationale: The client is experiencing an allergic transfusion reaction. The nurse must
immediately stop the transfusion to prevent further exposure to the allergen and maintain the
line with saline to keep access open, which is the standard safety protocol.
3. A client with type 1 diabetes is found unresponsive with a blood glucose level of 42 mg/dL. The
nurse is unable to access an IV site. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Attempt to force oral glucose gel into the client's mouth
B. Administer glucagon intramuscularly
C. Perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
D. Wait for the primary healthcare provider to arrive
Answer: B
Rationale: In the absence of IV access for dextrose, intramuscular glucagon is the indicated
treatment for severe hypoglycemia in an unconscious client. Oral intake is contraindicated due
to aspiration risk, and CPR is unnecessary as the client's airway and circulation are currently
intact.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with severe hyperkalemia. Which ECG change should the nurse be
most concerned about?
A. Prolonged PR interval
, B. Tall, peaked T waves
C. ST-segment depression
D. U waves
Answer: B
Rationale: Tall, peaked T waves are a hallmark ECG sign of hyperkalemia and indicate a high
risk for life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias. The other options are associated with
electrolyte imbalances or ischemia but are not the immediate indicator of cardiac crisis in
hyperkalemia.
5. A client post-thyroidectomy is experiencing laryngeal stridor. What is the priority nursing
intervention?
A. Administer a nebulized corticosteroid
B. Prepare for emergency intubation
C. Assess the surgical site for hematoma
D. Notify the surgeon and wait for orders
Answer: B
Rationale: Laryngeal stridor following thyroid surgery indicates severe airway obstruction,
likely due to edema or injury, which is a life-threatening emergency. Immediate airway
management via intubation takes precedence over assessment or notification.
6. A client in septic shock is receiving norepinephrine. Which clinical indicator best demonstrates
that the drug is having the desired effect?
A. A heart rate of 110 bpm
B. A mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 65 mmHg
C. Urine output of 15 mL/hour
D. Decreased central venous pressure
Answer: B
Rationale: Norepinephrine is a vasopressor used in septic shock to increase vascular resistance
and maintain perfusion. Achieving a target MAP of at least 65 mmHg is the standard clinical
goal for tissue perfusion, whereas the other options indicate ongoing shock or systemic stress.
, 7. A nurse is planning care for a client with neutropenia. Which action is essential?
A. Ensure the client maintains a high-fiber diet
B. Implement strict hand hygiene and limit visitors
C. Encourage the client to walk in public hallways
D. Administer a prophylactic antibiotic without an order
Answer: B
Rationale: Neutropenic clients are at extreme risk for opportunistic infections due to a
compromised immune system. Hand hygiene and visitor restriction are the primary nursing
interventions to prevent exposure to pathogens.
8. A client is prescribed phenytoin for seizure management. Which teaching point is most critical
for long-term adherence?
A. Taking the medication with food to avoid gastric upset
B. Performing frequent oral hygiene to prevent gingival hyperplasia
C. Stopping the medication if they feel seizure-free for one month
D. Reporting any vision changes to the ophthalmologist
Answer: B
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a common side effect of phenytoin, and poor oral hygiene can
lead to severe discomfort and secondary infections. While the other options are relevant,
gingival health requires active, consistent nursing intervention.
9. A nurse is assessing a client with a chest tube that has a water-seal drainage system. The nurse
notes constant bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What does this indicate?
A. The lung has successfully re-expanded
B. There is an air leak in the drainage system
C. The suction pressure is set correctly
D. The system is functioning normally
Answer: B
