, RNSG 1517 - A Maternity
Exam | Complete Questions
with Correct Answers and
Detailed Rationales - Latest
Update 2026
Section 1: Antepartum Care
& Fetal Development (Q1–
Q10)
Q1. A patient is pregnant for the fourth time.
She has a history of one birth at 39 weeks
(living), one birth at 35 weeks (living), and
one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks. What
is her GTPAL?
A) G4, T1, P1, A1, L2
B) G3, T2, P0, A1, L2
, C) G4, T2, P1, A0, L2
D) G3, T1, P1, A1, L1
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Gravida (G) = 4 (current pregnancy
+ 3 previous); Term (T) = 1 (birth at 39 weeks);
Preterm (P) = 1 (birth at 35 weeks); Abortion
(A) = 1 (spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks);
Living (L) = 2.
Q2. During a prenatal visit, a nurse notes a
patient has a positive urine pregnancy test
and Hegar's sign. These are classified as
which type of signs of pregnancy?
A) Presumptive
B) Probable
C) Positive
D) Diagnostic
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Probable signs are objective findings
observed by the examiner (e.g., Hegar's sign,
positive pregnancy test, Chadwick's sign) but
, are not diagnostic. Positive signs are direct
proof of a fetus (FHR, fetal movement felt by
examiner, ultrasound).
Q3. A pregnant patient's last menstrual
period (LMP) began on October 10, 2025.
Using Naegele’s Rule, what is her estimated
date of confinement (EDC)?
A) July 17, 2026
B) July 3, 2026
C) June 17, 2026
D) July 10, 2026
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naegele's Rule: Subtract 3 months
from the first day of the LMP, add 7 days, and
adjust the year (October 10 minus 3 months =
July 10, plus 7 days = July 17).
Q4. A nurse measures a pregnant patient’s
fundal height at 20 cm. At what anatomical
landmark should the nurse expect to palpate
the fundus?
Exam | Complete Questions
with Correct Answers and
Detailed Rationales - Latest
Update 2026
Section 1: Antepartum Care
& Fetal Development (Q1–
Q10)
Q1. A patient is pregnant for the fourth time.
She has a history of one birth at 39 weeks
(living), one birth at 35 weeks (living), and
one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks. What
is her GTPAL?
A) G4, T1, P1, A1, L2
B) G3, T2, P0, A1, L2
, C) G4, T2, P1, A0, L2
D) G3, T1, P1, A1, L1
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Gravida (G) = 4 (current pregnancy
+ 3 previous); Term (T) = 1 (birth at 39 weeks);
Preterm (P) = 1 (birth at 35 weeks); Abortion
(A) = 1 (spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks);
Living (L) = 2.
Q2. During a prenatal visit, a nurse notes a
patient has a positive urine pregnancy test
and Hegar's sign. These are classified as
which type of signs of pregnancy?
A) Presumptive
B) Probable
C) Positive
D) Diagnostic
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Probable signs are objective findings
observed by the examiner (e.g., Hegar's sign,
positive pregnancy test, Chadwick's sign) but
, are not diagnostic. Positive signs are direct
proof of a fetus (FHR, fetal movement felt by
examiner, ultrasound).
Q3. A pregnant patient's last menstrual
period (LMP) began on October 10, 2025.
Using Naegele’s Rule, what is her estimated
date of confinement (EDC)?
A) July 17, 2026
B) July 3, 2026
C) June 17, 2026
D) July 10, 2026
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naegele's Rule: Subtract 3 months
from the first day of the LMP, add 7 days, and
adjust the year (October 10 minus 3 months =
July 10, plus 7 days = July 17).
Q4. A nurse measures a pregnant patient’s
fundal height at 20 cm. At what anatomical
landmark should the nurse expect to palpate
the fundus?
