CAHIMS EXAM REVIEW TEST BANK 4
Certified Associate in Healthcare Information and
Management Systems
400 Practice Questions with Detailed Rationales
CAHIMS Certification Exam Prep
SECTION 1: HEALTHCARE INFORMATION SYSTEMS AND DATA STANDARDS
1. When New York State used data standards to develop their emergency-department data-
collection system, which of the following outcomes resulted?
A. Need for additional resources
B. Dissatisfied users
C. Ambiguous data requirements
D. Positive return on investment
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: By using data standards to develop their emergency-department data-
collection system, New York State completed their project on time without additional
resources and generated a positive return on investment. The use of standards provided
the basis for consensus between the hospital industry and the state, a robust pool of
information that satisfied the users, and the structure necessary to create unambiguous
data requirements and specifications. This demonstrates how data standards can
streamline project implementation, reduce costs, and improve stakeholder satisfaction
when properly applied to healthcare information systems.
2. What is the level of assurance of identity proofing that requires the presentation of a
government-issued identity but does not require verification of that government-issued
identity?
A. Level 1
B. Level 2
C. Level 3
[1]
, D. Level 4
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Level 2 requires presenting government-issued identification that includes
your full name, picture, and address or nationality; it does not require that the identity be
proven as authentic. This level of assurance balances security needs with usability, making
it appropriate for many healthcare applications where moderate identity verification is
sufficient without the administrative burden of full authentication verification.
3. Identify the factors that a computer uses to authenticate a human user.
A. Something you are, have, and know
B. Something with an image of you on it
C. Something that you know, like a secret
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Authentication factors are something you are (biometric), have (hardware
token), or know (password). This three-factor framework provides comprehensive security
by requiring multiple types of evidence before granting access. In healthcare settings, this
multi-factor approach is essential for protecting sensitive patient information and
complying with HIPAA security requirements.
4. What does SAML do?
A. Provisions user accounts
B. Makes access control decisions
C. Defines an identity claim
D. Provides an audit logging system
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) defines a way to convey an
identity and authentication claim from one party to a relying party. It enables single sign-
on (SSO) capabilities across different systems, which is particularly valuable in healthcare
environments where providers need to access multiple applications efficiently while
maintaining security protocols.
[2]
,5. Which of the following is true for hospice care?
A. Focusing on managing patient's pain, nausea, and any other discomforts associated
with a terminal illnesses (ie when the patient is believed to have less than six months to
live)
B. Can be provided to patients who are still receiving active treatment for the disease
(chemo)
C. Is only provided for inpatient setting
D. Is only provided by hospitals
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hospice care is provided to a variety of settings, including the home. The care
is focused on palliative care including the patient's spiritual and emotional needs, and is
not intended to cure or treat the patient's illness. Hospice becomes appropriate when
curative treatments are no longer effective or desired, and the focus shifts to quality of life
and comfort measures.
6. Which of the following is not a provision of the Affordable Care Act (ACA)?
A. Requires all Americans to have a basic form of health insurance or pay a federal tax
penalty
B. Allows a young adult to continue coverage on their parents' health insurance up to the
age of 26
C. Requires all Americans to see only physicians assigned to them by the federal
government
D. Ends preexisting condition exclusions so that insurance companies cannot refuse to
insure an applicant due to an existing medical condition
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The ACA includes many provisions but attempts to preserve patient choice of
insurance plan and providers within the insurance plan's provision. The ACA does not
mandate that patients see government-assigned physicians; rather, it expands consumer
choice and protections while maintaining the private insurance market structure with
additional regulations and consumer safeguards.
7. Which of the following does not accurately describe the Office of the National
Coordinator for Health Information Technology?
[3]
, A. Is responsible for setting policies and standards for, as well as promoting the use of,
health IT in the United States
B. Charges fines to physicians or hospitals that do not comply with its health IT
regulations
C. Is also known as "the Office of the National Coordinator" or "the ONC"
D. Is organizationally located within the Office of the Secretary for the U.S. Department of
Health and Human Services (HHS)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: While the ONC defines many of the technological criteria and coordinates
across federal and nonfederal partners, the Center for Medicare and Medicaid Services, as
the largest payer of healthcare in the United States, has created incentives for providers to
adopt (and penalties for providers who do not adopt) HIT under the Meaningful Use
program of the ACA, and will continue to do so under MACRA. The ONC itself does not have
direct fining authority over physicians and hospitals.
8. Which of the following is a true statement about medical screening?
A. Performs tests on patients who have no signs or symptoms of a disease with the goal to
identify treatable diseases in the very early stages in order to start treatment as quickly as
possible and avoid disease progression or complications
B. Cannot have "false positive" or "false negative" results
C. Is performed when a physician is fairly certain a patient has a particular disease
D. Is typically performed on patients suspected of having a disease in order to help the
physician make an accurate diagnosis and begin treatment in a timely and cost-effective
manner
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: As part of preventive care, medical screening is one of the few healthcare
activities targeted at healthy individuals rather than those with a disease. Screening tests
can produce false positives and false negatives, which is why confirmatory diagnostic
testing is often required. The goal is early detection when treatment is most effective.
9. Which of the following does not accurately describe Federally Qualified Health Centers
(FQHCs)?
A. Healthcare organizations that receive enhanced reimbursement from Medicare and
Medicaid if they meet a number of requirements
[4]
Certified Associate in Healthcare Information and
Management Systems
400 Practice Questions with Detailed Rationales
CAHIMS Certification Exam Prep
SECTION 1: HEALTHCARE INFORMATION SYSTEMS AND DATA STANDARDS
1. When New York State used data standards to develop their emergency-department data-
collection system, which of the following outcomes resulted?
A. Need for additional resources
B. Dissatisfied users
C. Ambiguous data requirements
D. Positive return on investment
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: By using data standards to develop their emergency-department data-
collection system, New York State completed their project on time without additional
resources and generated a positive return on investment. The use of standards provided
the basis for consensus between the hospital industry and the state, a robust pool of
information that satisfied the users, and the structure necessary to create unambiguous
data requirements and specifications. This demonstrates how data standards can
streamline project implementation, reduce costs, and improve stakeholder satisfaction
when properly applied to healthcare information systems.
2. What is the level of assurance of identity proofing that requires the presentation of a
government-issued identity but does not require verification of that government-issued
identity?
A. Level 1
B. Level 2
C. Level 3
[1]
, D. Level 4
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Level 2 requires presenting government-issued identification that includes
your full name, picture, and address or nationality; it does not require that the identity be
proven as authentic. This level of assurance balances security needs with usability, making
it appropriate for many healthcare applications where moderate identity verification is
sufficient without the administrative burden of full authentication verification.
3. Identify the factors that a computer uses to authenticate a human user.
A. Something you are, have, and know
B. Something with an image of you on it
C. Something that you know, like a secret
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Authentication factors are something you are (biometric), have (hardware
token), or know (password). This three-factor framework provides comprehensive security
by requiring multiple types of evidence before granting access. In healthcare settings, this
multi-factor approach is essential for protecting sensitive patient information and
complying with HIPAA security requirements.
4. What does SAML do?
A. Provisions user accounts
B. Makes access control decisions
C. Defines an identity claim
D. Provides an audit logging system
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) defines a way to convey an
identity and authentication claim from one party to a relying party. It enables single sign-
on (SSO) capabilities across different systems, which is particularly valuable in healthcare
environments where providers need to access multiple applications efficiently while
maintaining security protocols.
[2]
,5. Which of the following is true for hospice care?
A. Focusing on managing patient's pain, nausea, and any other discomforts associated
with a terminal illnesses (ie when the patient is believed to have less than six months to
live)
B. Can be provided to patients who are still receiving active treatment for the disease
(chemo)
C. Is only provided for inpatient setting
D. Is only provided by hospitals
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hospice care is provided to a variety of settings, including the home. The care
is focused on palliative care including the patient's spiritual and emotional needs, and is
not intended to cure or treat the patient's illness. Hospice becomes appropriate when
curative treatments are no longer effective or desired, and the focus shifts to quality of life
and comfort measures.
6. Which of the following is not a provision of the Affordable Care Act (ACA)?
A. Requires all Americans to have a basic form of health insurance or pay a federal tax
penalty
B. Allows a young adult to continue coverage on their parents' health insurance up to the
age of 26
C. Requires all Americans to see only physicians assigned to them by the federal
government
D. Ends preexisting condition exclusions so that insurance companies cannot refuse to
insure an applicant due to an existing medical condition
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The ACA includes many provisions but attempts to preserve patient choice of
insurance plan and providers within the insurance plan's provision. The ACA does not
mandate that patients see government-assigned physicians; rather, it expands consumer
choice and protections while maintaining the private insurance market structure with
additional regulations and consumer safeguards.
7. Which of the following does not accurately describe the Office of the National
Coordinator for Health Information Technology?
[3]
, A. Is responsible for setting policies and standards for, as well as promoting the use of,
health IT in the United States
B. Charges fines to physicians or hospitals that do not comply with its health IT
regulations
C. Is also known as "the Office of the National Coordinator" or "the ONC"
D. Is organizationally located within the Office of the Secretary for the U.S. Department of
Health and Human Services (HHS)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: While the ONC defines many of the technological criteria and coordinates
across federal and nonfederal partners, the Center for Medicare and Medicaid Services, as
the largest payer of healthcare in the United States, has created incentives for providers to
adopt (and penalties for providers who do not adopt) HIT under the Meaningful Use
program of the ACA, and will continue to do so under MACRA. The ONC itself does not have
direct fining authority over physicians and hospitals.
8. Which of the following is a true statement about medical screening?
A. Performs tests on patients who have no signs or symptoms of a disease with the goal to
identify treatable diseases in the very early stages in order to start treatment as quickly as
possible and avoid disease progression or complications
B. Cannot have "false positive" or "false negative" results
C. Is performed when a physician is fairly certain a patient has a particular disease
D. Is typically performed on patients suspected of having a disease in order to help the
physician make an accurate diagnosis and begin treatment in a timely and cost-effective
manner
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: As part of preventive care, medical screening is one of the few healthcare
activities targeted at healthy individuals rather than those with a disease. Screening tests
can produce false positives and false negatives, which is why confirmatory diagnostic
testing is often required. The goal is early detection when treatment is most effective.
9. Which of the following does not accurately describe Federally Qualified Health Centers
(FQHCs)?
A. Healthcare organizations that receive enhanced reimbursement from Medicare and
Medicaid if they meet a number of requirements
[4]
