RN VATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR TEST BANK 2026 COMPREHENSIVE SET WITH CORRECT ANSWERS And Rationale EXAM

RN VATI COMPREHENSIVE
PREDICTOR TEST BANK 2026
COMPREHENSIVE SET WITH
CORRECT ANSWERS And Rationale
EXAM
Question 1
A nurse is assessing a client 2 hours post-appendectomy. Which
of the following findings is the earliest indicator of hypovolemic
shock?

 A. Decreased urine output
 B. Tachycardia
 C. Hypotension
 D. Cool, clammy skin

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tachycardia is one of the earliest compensatory
responses to decreased circulating volume, triggered by
baroreceptors before blood pressure drops. Hypotension and cool
skin are late signs. Decreased urine output occurs later as renal
perfusion decreases.




Question 2
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which of the
following laboratory results requires immediate intervention?

,  A. Sodium 135 mEq/L
 B. Potassium 3.0 mEq/L
 C. BUN 18 mg/dL
 D. Glucose 110 mg/dL

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that excretes potassium.
A potassium of 3.0 is severely hypokalemic and puts the patient at
high risk for fatal cardiac arrhythmias (e.g., Torsades de Pointes).
The other values are within or near normal limits.




Question 3
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new
colostomy. Which statement indicates a need for further
teaching?

 A. "I will cut the wafer opening about 1/8 inch larger than my
stoma."
 B. "I will change the pouch immediately if it becomes more
than half full."
 C. "I will eat foods that reduce gas, like yogurt and
buttermilk."
 D. "I will apply a skin barrier powder directly onto the red,
weeping skin."

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Skin barrier powder should only be used on moist,
denuded skin, but it must be dusted on and then sealed with a
skin barrier wipe; applying it alone will prevent the wafer from

,adhering. Option A is correct (prevents constriction), B is correct
(prevents leakage/weight), and C is correct (probiotics reduce
gas).




Question 4
A nurse is caring for a client on continuous tube feeding. Which
position is safest to prevent aspiration?

 A. Supine with the head flat
 B. Left lateral position
 C. Semi-Fowler's (30–45 degrees)
 D. High-Fowler's (90 degrees)

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Semi-Fowler's (30–45 degrees) is the standard,
evidence-based position for tube feedings to reduce the risk of
aspiration. High-Fowler's is ideal but often not sustainable long-
term; semi-Fowler's is the minimum safe angle.




Question 5
A client is receiving a blood transfusion. Fifteen minutes after
initiation, the client reports low back pain and chills. What is the
nurse's priority action?

 A. Slow the infusion rate to 50 mL/hr
 B. Stop the transfusion and infuse normal saline
 C. Administer diphenhydramine

,  D. Obtain a urine sample for hemoglobin

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Back pain and chills are classic signs of an acute
hemolytic transfusion reaction. The priority is to stop the
transfusion immediately, disconnect the blood tubing, and
infuse 0.9% normal saline with new tubing to maintain venous
access. Slowing or medicating comes later.




Question 6
A client is prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which of the
following would indicate early lithium toxicity?

 A. Fine hand tremors and polyuria
 B. Severe diarrhea and vomiting
 C. Ataxia and confusion
 D. Serum lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Early toxicity (level > 1.5) often presents with severe GI
symptoms like persistent nausea, vomiting, and profuse diarrhea,
followed by neurological symptoms (ataxia, confusion). Fine
tremors and polyuria are common therapeutic side effects. 0.8 is
within the therapeutic range (0.6–1.2).