NURS 326 Final Exam Prep Document | 2026/2027 Edition |
250 Verified Questions
NURS 326 Final Exam 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% Verified
Solutions | Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive exam preparation resource covers reproductive health across the lifespan,
integrating evidence-based nursing interventions, developmental considerations, and current clinical
guidelines. With 250 verified questions and detailed rationales, it ensures mastery of key concepts from
puberty through menopause and beyond. Designed to align with Drexel University's NURS 326
curriculum, this document guarantees a thorough review for the final exam.
Key Features:
Reproductive anatomy and physiology
Contraception and family planning
Pregnancy, labor, and postpartum care
Sexually transmitted infections and prevention
Menstrual disorders and menopause management
Gender-affirming care and reproductive health equity
Updates for 2026:
- Updated to reflect 2026 CDC STI treatment guidelines
- Incorporated latest ACOG recommendations for prenatal care
- Added content on telehealth in reproductive health
- Revised questions on contraceptive efficacy rates
- Enhanced rationales with evidence-based practice references
Abstract:
This exam preparation document provides a rigorous review of reproductive health across the lifespan, tailored for
NURS 326 at Drexel University. It encompasses 250 verified questions covering anatomy, physiology,
contraception, pregnancy, STIs, menstrual disorders, and menopause. Each question includes a detailed rationale
explaining correct and incorrect options, emphasizing critical thinking and clinical application. The content is
updated to reflect 2026-2027 academic standards and the latest evidence-based guidelines. Designed to ensure a
100% pass guarantee, this resource is essential for nursing students seeking to excel in their final exam. It also
addresses emerging topics such as gender-affirming care and reproductive health disparities. The structured
format facilitates efficient study and retention of key concepts.
Keywords:
Reproductive health, NURS 326, Drexel University, Nursing exam prep, 250 questions, Evidence-based practice,
Lifespan care, 2026 guidelines
Answer Format:
Each question is followed by the correct answer and a comprehensive rationale explaining why it is correct and
why the other options are incorrect. Distractor explanations highlight common misconceptions and clinical
reasoning errors. This format reinforces learning and prepares students for NCLEX-style questions.
Compliance Checklist:
Aligned with Drexel University NURS 326 course objectives
Updated to 2026-2027 academic year standards
References current ACOG, CDC, and WHO guidelines
Page 1
, Includes evidence-based rationales for all answers
Covers reproductive health across all lifespan stages
Designed for 100% pass guarantee on final exam
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Reproductive Anatomy and 1-40 Male and female reproductive systems, 16%
Physiology hormonal regulation, gametogenesis,
menstrual cycle
Contraception and Family 41-80 Hormonal methods, barrier methods, IUDs, 16%
Planning emergency contraception, sterilization
Pregnancy, Labor, and 81-130 Prenatal care, fetal development, labor 20%
Postpartum Care stages, postpartum complications,
breastfeeding
Sexually Transmitted Infections 131-170 Bacterial STIs, viral STIs, prevention, 16%
screening, treatment guidelines
Menstrual Disorders and 171-210 Dysmenorrhea, amenorrhea, endometriosis, 16%
Menopause perimenopause, hormone therapy
Special Populations and 211-250 Adolescent reproductive health, LGBTQ+ 16%
Emerging Topics care, infertility, reproductive cancers, health
disparities
Page 2
,Q1. A nulliparous client with a history of recurrent early pregnancy losses and a current BMI of 18
kg/m² is diagnosed with hyperprolactinemia. Which pathophysiologic mechanism most directly
links hyperprolactinemia to impaired fertility?
A. Direct cytotoxic effect on granulosa cells reducing estrogen synthesis
B. Suppression of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) pulse frequency
C. Competitive inhibition of progesterone at endometrial receptors
D. Accelerated clearance of luteinizing hormone (LH) from circulation
Correct Answer: B. Suppression of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) pulse frequency
Rationale: Hyperprolactinemia suppresses GnRH pulse frequency via increased hypothalamic dopamine
turnover, leading to reduced LH and FSH secretion, anovulation, and luteal phase defects. Options A, C,
and D are not established mechanisms; prolactin does not directly damage granulosa cells, compete with
progesterone, or accelerate LH clearance.
Why Wrong:
A - Prolactin does not exert direct cytotoxic effects on granulosa cells.
C - Prolactin does not competitively inhibit progesterone receptors.
D - Prolactin does not accelerate clearance of LH.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 56
Q2. A client with a confirmed intrauterine pregnancy at 12 weeks gestation reports sudden onset of
severe lower abdominal pain and syncope. Ultrasound reveals a complex adnexal mass with fetal
cardiac activity. Which intervention should be prioritized?
A. Administer methotrexate intramuscularly
B. Prepare for emergency laparotomy
C. Perform dilation and curettage
D. Obtain serum beta-hCG quantitative levels
Correct Answer: B. Prepare for emergency laparotomy
Rationale: The presentation suggests a heterotopic pregnancy (coexisting intrauterine and ectopic) or a
ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Hemodynamic instability and fetal cardiac activity in the adnexa necessitate
immediate surgical intervention (laparotomy). Methotrexate is contraindicated in heterotopic pregnancy
due to the viable intrauterine gestation. Dilation and curettage would not address the ectopic mass.
Why Wrong:
A - Methotrexate is contraindicated in heterotopic pregnancy because it would harm the intrauterine
fetus.
C - Dilation and curettage does not treat an adnexal ectopic pregnancy.
D - Obtaining hCG levels delays definitive surgical management in an unstable patient.
Reference: Cunningham, F.G., et al. (2025). Williams Obstetrics, 26th Ed., Ch. 19
Page 3
, Q3. A client with a history of recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis (four episodes in the past year) is
requesting a long-term suppression regimen. Which approach is most consistent with current CDC
guidelines?
A. Fluconazole 150 mg orally every 72 hours for three doses, then monthly for 6 months
B. Clotrimazole 500 mg vaginal suppository weekly for 6 months
C. Fluconazole 150 mg orally weekly for 6 months
D. Boric acid 600 mg intravaginally daily for 14 days, then twice weekly for 6 months
Correct Answer: C. Fluconazole 150 mg orally weekly for 6 months
Rationale: CDC guidelines for recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis ("e4 episodes/year) recommend
induction with fluconazole 150 mg every 72 hours for 3 doses, followed by maintenance with fluconazole
150 mg weekly for 6 months. Option A describes induction only, not maintenance. Options B and D are
second-line but not first-line per CDC.
Why Wrong:
A - This regimen describes induction only, not the required 6-month maintenance therapy.
B - Clotrimazole weekly is not the recommended first-line suppression regimen.
D - Boric acid is a second-line alternative for non-albicans species, not first-line suppression.
Reference: Workowski, K.A., et al. (2025). Sexually Transmitted Infections Treatment Guidelines, MMWR
Q4. A client is 28 weeks pregnant with a history of type 2 diabetes (pre-pregnancy A1c 8.2%) and
chronic hypertension. She presents with blood pressure 162/104 mm Hg, proteinuria 3+ on dipstick,
and serum creatinine 1.4 mg/dL. Which finding would most strongly suggest superimposed
preeclampsia rather than worsening chronic hypertension?
A. Serum uric acid 6.2 mg/dL
B. Placental growth factor (PlGF) <100 pg/mL
C. 24-hour urine protein 600 mg
D. Hemoglobin 11.0 g/dL
Correct Answer: B. Placental growth factor (PlGF) <100 pg/mL
Rationale: Low PlGF (<100 pg/mL) is a biomarker for placental dysfunction and strongly supports
superimposed preeclampsia. Serum uric acid may be elevated in both conditions. Proteinuria <300
mg/24h is not diagnostic. Hemoglobin is not discriminatory. The combination of new-onset proteinuria
and elevated creatinine in a client with chronic hypertension suggests preeclampsia.
Why Wrong:
A - Serum uric acid can be elevated in chronic hypertension alone, lacking specificity.
C - 600 mg/24h proteinuria is not diagnostic; preeclampsia typically requires 300 mg/24h, but this is
not the strongest discriminator.
D - Hemoglobin is not used to differentiate preeclampsia from chronic hypertension.
Reference: ACOG Practice Bulletin No. 222 (2025). Gestational Hypertension and Preeclampsia
Page 4
250 Verified Questions
NURS 326 Final Exam 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% Verified
Solutions | Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive exam preparation resource covers reproductive health across the lifespan,
integrating evidence-based nursing interventions, developmental considerations, and current clinical
guidelines. With 250 verified questions and detailed rationales, it ensures mastery of key concepts from
puberty through menopause and beyond. Designed to align with Drexel University's NURS 326
curriculum, this document guarantees a thorough review for the final exam.
Key Features:
Reproductive anatomy and physiology
Contraception and family planning
Pregnancy, labor, and postpartum care
Sexually transmitted infections and prevention
Menstrual disorders and menopause management
Gender-affirming care and reproductive health equity
Updates for 2026:
- Updated to reflect 2026 CDC STI treatment guidelines
- Incorporated latest ACOG recommendations for prenatal care
- Added content on telehealth in reproductive health
- Revised questions on contraceptive efficacy rates
- Enhanced rationales with evidence-based practice references
Abstract:
This exam preparation document provides a rigorous review of reproductive health across the lifespan, tailored for
NURS 326 at Drexel University. It encompasses 250 verified questions covering anatomy, physiology,
contraception, pregnancy, STIs, menstrual disorders, and menopause. Each question includes a detailed rationale
explaining correct and incorrect options, emphasizing critical thinking and clinical application. The content is
updated to reflect 2026-2027 academic standards and the latest evidence-based guidelines. Designed to ensure a
100% pass guarantee, this resource is essential for nursing students seeking to excel in their final exam. It also
addresses emerging topics such as gender-affirming care and reproductive health disparities. The structured
format facilitates efficient study and retention of key concepts.
Keywords:
Reproductive health, NURS 326, Drexel University, Nursing exam prep, 250 questions, Evidence-based practice,
Lifespan care, 2026 guidelines
Answer Format:
Each question is followed by the correct answer and a comprehensive rationale explaining why it is correct and
why the other options are incorrect. Distractor explanations highlight common misconceptions and clinical
reasoning errors. This format reinforces learning and prepares students for NCLEX-style questions.
Compliance Checklist:
Aligned with Drexel University NURS 326 course objectives
Updated to 2026-2027 academic year standards
References current ACOG, CDC, and WHO guidelines
Page 1
, Includes evidence-based rationales for all answers
Covers reproductive health across all lifespan stages
Designed for 100% pass guarantee on final exam
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Reproductive Anatomy and 1-40 Male and female reproductive systems, 16%
Physiology hormonal regulation, gametogenesis,
menstrual cycle
Contraception and Family 41-80 Hormonal methods, barrier methods, IUDs, 16%
Planning emergency contraception, sterilization
Pregnancy, Labor, and 81-130 Prenatal care, fetal development, labor 20%
Postpartum Care stages, postpartum complications,
breastfeeding
Sexually Transmitted Infections 131-170 Bacterial STIs, viral STIs, prevention, 16%
screening, treatment guidelines
Menstrual Disorders and 171-210 Dysmenorrhea, amenorrhea, endometriosis, 16%
Menopause perimenopause, hormone therapy
Special Populations and 211-250 Adolescent reproductive health, LGBTQ+ 16%
Emerging Topics care, infertility, reproductive cancers, health
disparities
Page 2
,Q1. A nulliparous client with a history of recurrent early pregnancy losses and a current BMI of 18
kg/m² is diagnosed with hyperprolactinemia. Which pathophysiologic mechanism most directly
links hyperprolactinemia to impaired fertility?
A. Direct cytotoxic effect on granulosa cells reducing estrogen synthesis
B. Suppression of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) pulse frequency
C. Competitive inhibition of progesterone at endometrial receptors
D. Accelerated clearance of luteinizing hormone (LH) from circulation
Correct Answer: B. Suppression of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) pulse frequency
Rationale: Hyperprolactinemia suppresses GnRH pulse frequency via increased hypothalamic dopamine
turnover, leading to reduced LH and FSH secretion, anovulation, and luteal phase defects. Options A, C,
and D are not established mechanisms; prolactin does not directly damage granulosa cells, compete with
progesterone, or accelerate LH clearance.
Why Wrong:
A - Prolactin does not exert direct cytotoxic effects on granulosa cells.
C - Prolactin does not competitively inhibit progesterone receptors.
D - Prolactin does not accelerate clearance of LH.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 56
Q2. A client with a confirmed intrauterine pregnancy at 12 weeks gestation reports sudden onset of
severe lower abdominal pain and syncope. Ultrasound reveals a complex adnexal mass with fetal
cardiac activity. Which intervention should be prioritized?
A. Administer methotrexate intramuscularly
B. Prepare for emergency laparotomy
C. Perform dilation and curettage
D. Obtain serum beta-hCG quantitative levels
Correct Answer: B. Prepare for emergency laparotomy
Rationale: The presentation suggests a heterotopic pregnancy (coexisting intrauterine and ectopic) or a
ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Hemodynamic instability and fetal cardiac activity in the adnexa necessitate
immediate surgical intervention (laparotomy). Methotrexate is contraindicated in heterotopic pregnancy
due to the viable intrauterine gestation. Dilation and curettage would not address the ectopic mass.
Why Wrong:
A - Methotrexate is contraindicated in heterotopic pregnancy because it would harm the intrauterine
fetus.
C - Dilation and curettage does not treat an adnexal ectopic pregnancy.
D - Obtaining hCG levels delays definitive surgical management in an unstable patient.
Reference: Cunningham, F.G., et al. (2025). Williams Obstetrics, 26th Ed., Ch. 19
Page 3
, Q3. A client with a history of recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis (four episodes in the past year) is
requesting a long-term suppression regimen. Which approach is most consistent with current CDC
guidelines?
A. Fluconazole 150 mg orally every 72 hours for three doses, then monthly for 6 months
B. Clotrimazole 500 mg vaginal suppository weekly for 6 months
C. Fluconazole 150 mg orally weekly for 6 months
D. Boric acid 600 mg intravaginally daily for 14 days, then twice weekly for 6 months
Correct Answer: C. Fluconazole 150 mg orally weekly for 6 months
Rationale: CDC guidelines for recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis ("e4 episodes/year) recommend
induction with fluconazole 150 mg every 72 hours for 3 doses, followed by maintenance with fluconazole
150 mg weekly for 6 months. Option A describes induction only, not maintenance. Options B and D are
second-line but not first-line per CDC.
Why Wrong:
A - This regimen describes induction only, not the required 6-month maintenance therapy.
B - Clotrimazole weekly is not the recommended first-line suppression regimen.
D - Boric acid is a second-line alternative for non-albicans species, not first-line suppression.
Reference: Workowski, K.A., et al. (2025). Sexually Transmitted Infections Treatment Guidelines, MMWR
Q4. A client is 28 weeks pregnant with a history of type 2 diabetes (pre-pregnancy A1c 8.2%) and
chronic hypertension. She presents with blood pressure 162/104 mm Hg, proteinuria 3+ on dipstick,
and serum creatinine 1.4 mg/dL. Which finding would most strongly suggest superimposed
preeclampsia rather than worsening chronic hypertension?
A. Serum uric acid 6.2 mg/dL
B. Placental growth factor (PlGF) <100 pg/mL
C. 24-hour urine protein 600 mg
D. Hemoglobin 11.0 g/dL
Correct Answer: B. Placental growth factor (PlGF) <100 pg/mL
Rationale: Low PlGF (<100 pg/mL) is a biomarker for placental dysfunction and strongly supports
superimposed preeclampsia. Serum uric acid may be elevated in both conditions. Proteinuria <300
mg/24h is not diagnostic. Hemoglobin is not discriminatory. The combination of new-onset proteinuria
and elevated creatinine in a client with chronic hypertension suggests preeclampsia.
Why Wrong:
A - Serum uric acid can be elevated in chronic hypertension alone, lacking specificity.
C - 600 mg/24h proteinuria is not diagnostic; preeclampsia typically requires 300 mg/24h, but this is
not the strongest discriminator.
D - Hemoglobin is not used to differentiate preeclampsia from chronic hypertension.
Reference: ACOG Practice Bulletin No. 222 (2025). Gestational Hypertension and Preeclampsia
Page 4
