ATI PN MATERNAL NEWBORN PROCTORED EXAM 2027 LATEST
UPDATE (MOST RECENT!!!) 100% GUARANTEED PASS A+ GRADED
1|Page SUCCESS!!!
,ANTEPARTUM — PRENATAL CARE & ASSESSMENT
Q1. A nurse in a health clinic is reviewing contraceptive use with a group of adolescent clients. Which
client statement indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I can use the rhythm method without tracking my cycle."
B) "The Depo-Provera injection prevents pregnancy for 3 months."
C) "I can reuse my diaphragm without cleaning it."
D) "Birth control pills protect against STIs."
Answer: B
Depo-Provera (medroxyprogesterone) is an injectable contraceptive administered every 3 months (12–14
weeks). It is 99% effective with perfect use. Rhythm method requires cycle tracking; diaphragms must be
cleaned after each use; hormonal contraceptives do not prevent STIs.
Q2. A client at 36 weeks of gestation reports decreased fetal movement. What is the priority nursing
action?
A) Reassure the client that fetal movement decreases near term
B) Instruct the client to drink orange juice and rest before counting kicks
C) Notify the provider immediately
D) Schedule a non-stress test for the following day
Answer: C
Decreased fetal movement can indicate fetal compromise and requires immediate evaluation. The nurse
should notify the provider and initiate further assessment such as a non-stress test or biophysical profile.
Waiting or simply reassuring the client could delay necessary intervention.
Q3. A pregnant client at 28 weeks of gestation has a positive 1-hour glucose tolerance test of 155
mg/dL. What is the appropriate next step?
A) Diagnose gestational diabetes immediately
B) Schedule a 3-hour glucose tolerance test
C) Instruct the client to start a diabetic diet
D) Repeat the 1-hour glucose test in 2 weeks
Answer: B
A 1-hour glucose challenge test with a result of ≥140 mg/dL (some providers use ≥130 mg/dL) requires a
3-hour oral glucose tolerance test to confirm the diagnosis of gestational diabetes. A single abnormal
value does not confirm the diagnosis.
2|Page SUCCESS!!!
,Q4. A client who is pregnant and is scheduled for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) testing asks the nurse,
"What is this test for?" Which response is correct?
A) "It screens for neural tube defects and chromosomal abnormalities."
B) "It diagnoses gestational diabetes."
C) "It determines the baby's sex."
D) "It checks for urinary tract infections."
Answer: A
Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is performed at 15–20 weeks of gestation to
identify pregnancies at increased risk for neural tube defects (such as spina bifida and anencephaly) and
chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome.
LABOR & DELIVERY — INTRAPARTUM
Q5. A nurse is caring for a client in active labor. The fetal heart rate tracing shows late decelerations.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Increase the rate of IV fluids
B) Position the client on her left side
C) Administer oxygen via face mask
D) Notify the provider
Answer: B
Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The priority intervention is to reposition the
client on her left side to improve placental perfusion. This is followed by increasing IV fluids,
administering oxygen, and notifying the provider.
Q6. A client at 39 weeks of gestation is in the first stage of labor. The nurse notes that the client's
contractions are every 2–3 minutes, lasting 60 seconds, and are strong. The cervix is 7 cm dilated and
100% effaced. What stage of labor is the client in?
A) Latent phase of the first stage
B) Active phase of the first stage
C) Transition phase of the first stage
D) Second stage of labor
Answer: C
The transition phase of the first stage of labor is characterized by cervical dilation from 7–10 cm, strong
contractions occurring every 2–3 minutes, and intense pain. The active phase is typically 4–7 cm, and the
latent phase is 0–3 cm. The second stage is full dilation (10 cm) to delivery.
Q7. A nurse is caring for a client receiving an epidural block for pain management during labor. Which
finding indicates a complication of the epidural?
3|Page SUCCESS!!!
, A) Maternal hypotension
B) Fetal heart rate of 140 bpm
C) Client reports tingling in the lower extremities
D) Contractions are every 3 minutes
Answer: A
Maternal hypotension is a common complication of epidural anesthesia due to sympathetic blockade
causing vasodilation. The nurse should monitor blood pressure frequently and be prepared to administer
IV fluids and oxygen. Tingling is expected, and a normal FHR does not indicate a complication.
Q8. A nurse is preparing to administer oxytocin (Pitocin) to a client for induction of labor. Which
action is essential before initiating the infusion?
A) Assess the client's blood glucose level
B) Ensure the client has a full bladder
C) Verify that continuous fetal monitoring is in place
D) Administer pain medication
Answer: C
Continuous fetal monitoring is essential during oxytocin administration to detect uterine
hyperstimulation and fetal distress. Oxytocin is a high-alert medication that requires careful monitoring.
Checking blood glucose and administering pain medication are not priority actions before starting the
infusion.
Q9. A nurse is monitoring a client in the second stage of labor. Which finding indicates that birth is
imminent?
A) Complete cervical dilation of 10 cm
B) The client reports an urge to push
C) The perineum begins to bulge with each contraction
D) The client's membranes rupture
Answer: C
Bulging of the perineum with each contraction indicates the fetal head is crowning, and birth is
imminent. Complete dilation (10 cm) indicates the start of the second stage, but birth may not be
immediate. The urge to push can occur before crowning.
POSTPARTUM — MATERNAL RECOVERY
Q10. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postpartum. The fundus is firm, midline, and at the
level of the umbilicus. The client has moderate lochia rubra with small clots. What is the most
appropriate nursing action?
4|Page SUCCESS!!!
UPDATE (MOST RECENT!!!) 100% GUARANTEED PASS A+ GRADED
1|Page SUCCESS!!!
,ANTEPARTUM — PRENATAL CARE & ASSESSMENT
Q1. A nurse in a health clinic is reviewing contraceptive use with a group of adolescent clients. Which
client statement indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I can use the rhythm method without tracking my cycle."
B) "The Depo-Provera injection prevents pregnancy for 3 months."
C) "I can reuse my diaphragm without cleaning it."
D) "Birth control pills protect against STIs."
Answer: B
Depo-Provera (medroxyprogesterone) is an injectable contraceptive administered every 3 months (12–14
weeks). It is 99% effective with perfect use. Rhythm method requires cycle tracking; diaphragms must be
cleaned after each use; hormonal contraceptives do not prevent STIs.
Q2. A client at 36 weeks of gestation reports decreased fetal movement. What is the priority nursing
action?
A) Reassure the client that fetal movement decreases near term
B) Instruct the client to drink orange juice and rest before counting kicks
C) Notify the provider immediately
D) Schedule a non-stress test for the following day
Answer: C
Decreased fetal movement can indicate fetal compromise and requires immediate evaluation. The nurse
should notify the provider and initiate further assessment such as a non-stress test or biophysical profile.
Waiting or simply reassuring the client could delay necessary intervention.
Q3. A pregnant client at 28 weeks of gestation has a positive 1-hour glucose tolerance test of 155
mg/dL. What is the appropriate next step?
A) Diagnose gestational diabetes immediately
B) Schedule a 3-hour glucose tolerance test
C) Instruct the client to start a diabetic diet
D) Repeat the 1-hour glucose test in 2 weeks
Answer: B
A 1-hour glucose challenge test with a result of ≥140 mg/dL (some providers use ≥130 mg/dL) requires a
3-hour oral glucose tolerance test to confirm the diagnosis of gestational diabetes. A single abnormal
value does not confirm the diagnosis.
2|Page SUCCESS!!!
,Q4. A client who is pregnant and is scheduled for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) testing asks the nurse,
"What is this test for?" Which response is correct?
A) "It screens for neural tube defects and chromosomal abnormalities."
B) "It diagnoses gestational diabetes."
C) "It determines the baby's sex."
D) "It checks for urinary tract infections."
Answer: A
Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is performed at 15–20 weeks of gestation to
identify pregnancies at increased risk for neural tube defects (such as spina bifida and anencephaly) and
chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome.
LABOR & DELIVERY — INTRAPARTUM
Q5. A nurse is caring for a client in active labor. The fetal heart rate tracing shows late decelerations.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Increase the rate of IV fluids
B) Position the client on her left side
C) Administer oxygen via face mask
D) Notify the provider
Answer: B
Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The priority intervention is to reposition the
client on her left side to improve placental perfusion. This is followed by increasing IV fluids,
administering oxygen, and notifying the provider.
Q6. A client at 39 weeks of gestation is in the first stage of labor. The nurse notes that the client's
contractions are every 2–3 minutes, lasting 60 seconds, and are strong. The cervix is 7 cm dilated and
100% effaced. What stage of labor is the client in?
A) Latent phase of the first stage
B) Active phase of the first stage
C) Transition phase of the first stage
D) Second stage of labor
Answer: C
The transition phase of the first stage of labor is characterized by cervical dilation from 7–10 cm, strong
contractions occurring every 2–3 minutes, and intense pain. The active phase is typically 4–7 cm, and the
latent phase is 0–3 cm. The second stage is full dilation (10 cm) to delivery.
Q7. A nurse is caring for a client receiving an epidural block for pain management during labor. Which
finding indicates a complication of the epidural?
3|Page SUCCESS!!!
, A) Maternal hypotension
B) Fetal heart rate of 140 bpm
C) Client reports tingling in the lower extremities
D) Contractions are every 3 minutes
Answer: A
Maternal hypotension is a common complication of epidural anesthesia due to sympathetic blockade
causing vasodilation. The nurse should monitor blood pressure frequently and be prepared to administer
IV fluids and oxygen. Tingling is expected, and a normal FHR does not indicate a complication.
Q8. A nurse is preparing to administer oxytocin (Pitocin) to a client for induction of labor. Which
action is essential before initiating the infusion?
A) Assess the client's blood glucose level
B) Ensure the client has a full bladder
C) Verify that continuous fetal monitoring is in place
D) Administer pain medication
Answer: C
Continuous fetal monitoring is essential during oxytocin administration to detect uterine
hyperstimulation and fetal distress. Oxytocin is a high-alert medication that requires careful monitoring.
Checking blood glucose and administering pain medication are not priority actions before starting the
infusion.
Q9. A nurse is monitoring a client in the second stage of labor. Which finding indicates that birth is
imminent?
A) Complete cervical dilation of 10 cm
B) The client reports an urge to push
C) The perineum begins to bulge with each contraction
D) The client's membranes rupture
Answer: C
Bulging of the perineum with each contraction indicates the fetal head is crowning, and birth is
imminent. Complete dilation (10 cm) indicates the start of the second stage, but birth may not be
immediate. The urge to push can occur before crowning.
POSTPARTUM — MATERNAL RECOVERY
Q10. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postpartum. The fundus is firm, midline, and at the
level of the umbilicus. The client has moderate lochia rubra with small clots. What is the most
appropriate nursing action?
4|Page SUCCESS!!!
