ULTIMATE EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS
SECTION 1: MEDICAL SCREENING & PATIENT ACUITY
Question 1
A 24yearold male presents after a motor vehicle collision with a GCS of 15,
chest pain, and tachypnea. According to the primary survey framework, which
component should be addressed first?
A) Breathing and ventilation to assess for pneumothorax
B) Circulation with hemorrhage control
C) Airway with cervical spine protection
D) Disability (neurologic status) to establish baseline GCS
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary survey follows the ABCDE approach; airway with
cervical spine protection is always the first priority to prevent hypoxia and
further spinal cord injury.
Question 2
,According to EMTALA regulations, which of the following is legally required
for every individual who presents to an emergency department requesting
care, regardless of their ability to pay?
A) Full definitive treatment for all complaints before any assessment
B) A medical screening examination to determine presence of an emergency
medical condition
C) Admission to the hospital if the patient requests to be admitted
D) Immediate discharge if the patient cannot provide proof of insurance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: EMTALA mandates that a medical screening examination be
performed on every patient who presents to the emergency department to
determine whether an emergency medical condition exists.
Question 3
Which initial assessment component is most critical in differentiating between
emergent and nonemergent conditions during triage?
A) Complete medical history
B) Rapid focused physical exam
C) Vital signs measurement
D) Patient age assessment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A rapid focused physical exam allows the ENP to identify signs of
lifethreatening conditions and prioritize care appropriately, which is essential
in triage.
,Question 4
Which scoring tool is most appropriate for risk stratification in patients with
chest pain to evaluate for acute coronary syndrome?
A) Glasgow Coma Scale
B) HEART score
C) NEXUS criteria
D) NIH Stroke Scale
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The HEART score helps stratify chest pain patients' risk for major
adverse cardiac events, guiding management decisions.
Question 5
A 2yearold child presents with respiratory distress, stridor, and drooling. The
child is sitting upright with the neck extended and is febrile. What is the most
appropriate initial step?
A) Perform a throat examination using a tongue depressor
B) Obtain a lateral neck radiograph in the ED
C) Maintain the child in a position of comfort and prepare for potential airway
intervention
D) Administer nebulized racemic epinephrine
, Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This presentation is concerning for epiglottitis. The child should be
maintained in a position of comfort; throat examination and radiographs
should not be performed as they may precipitate airway obstruction.
Question 6
A 45yearold female with a history of hypertension presents with acute onset
of severe headache, nausea, and blurred vision. Blood pressure is 220/120
mmHg. What is the most appropriate initial step in the medical screening?
A) Administer oral clonidine and discharge with followup
B) Evaluate for endorgan damage through history, physical exam, and
targeted studies
C) Administer intravenous labetalol 20 mg immediately
D) Obtain a CT head and admit for observation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Initial screening for hypertensive emergency includes evaluating
for endorgan damage through history, physical examination, and targeted
studies before initiating treatment.
Question 7
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial triage category for a
patient presenting with chest pain radiating to the left arm, diaphoresis, and a
heart rate of 112 bpm using the Emergency Severity Index (ESI) system?