NBCE PT Boards Exam Prep Test Bank 2
500 Practice Questions with Verified Answers and Rationales |
Latest 2026-2027 | Graded A+
SECTION 1: THERAPEUTIC EXERCISE & REHABILITATION PROTOCOLS
Questions 1-80
Q1. A patient with chronic ankle instability fails the Star Excursion Balance Test
in the anteromedial reach direction. Which exercise is MOST appropriate
initially?
A) Single-limb stance on a firm surface with eyes open
B) Single-limb stance on a foam pad with eyes closed
C) Anterior reach on the uninvolved leg
D) Double-leg squat on a BOSU ball
Answer: A) Single-limb stance on a firm surface with eyes open
Rationale: Initial retraining begins with a stable, low-challenge environment (firm
surface, eyes open) to develop proprioceptive control before progressing to
unstable surfaces or reduced visual input .
Q2. Which finding BEST indicates progression from isometric to concentric-
eccentric rotator cuff strengthening?
A) Pain-free isometric contraction at 50% MVC
B) Full passive range of motion without pain
C) Ability to hold the arm in 90° abduction for 30 seconds without substitution
D) Negative drop arm test
Answer: C) Ability to hold the arm in 90° abduction for 30 seconds without
substitution
,Rationale: Functional isometric endurance (holding a position) precedes dynamic
concentric/eccentric control. The drop arm test (D) rules out full-thickness tear
but does not assess strength readiness .
Q3. A patient with patellofemoral pain exhibits excessive femoral adduction and
internal rotation during single-leg squat. Which muscle is MOST likely
underactive?
A) Gluteus maximus
B) Gluteus medius
C) Tensor fasciae latae
D) Quadratus lumborum
Answer: B) Gluteus medius
Rationale: Gluteus medius weakness allows femoral adduction and internal
rotation (dynamic valgus). TFL (C) is often overactive in this pattern .
Q4. During lumbar stabilization training, a patient cannot maintain a neutral
spine while performing a contralateral arm lift in quadruped. The MOST
appropriate cue is:
A) "Tuck your tailbone under"
B) "Arch your back more"
C) "Brace as if preparing for a punch"
D) "Relax your abdomen completely"
Answer: C) "Brace as if preparing for a punch"
Rationale: Bracing increases intra-abdominal pressure and encourages a neutral
spine. Posterior pelvic tilt (A) promotes flexion, worsening the pattern .
Q5. Which exercise BEST targets serratus anterior in a patient with scapular
winging?
,A) Seated rows with elbows tucked
B) Push-up plus at end range
C) Prone IYT raises
D) Standing external rotation with band
Answer: B) Push-up plus at end range
Rationale: Push-up plus (protraction at end range) selectively activates serratus
anterior. Rows (A) target rhomboids; IYT (C) targets lower/middle trapezius .
Q6. A patient with patellar tendinopathy (jumper's knee) has pain with single-
leg decline squats. The MOST appropriate initial exercise is:
A) Full-depth double-leg squat on flat surface
B) Isometric quadriceps contraction at 60° knee flexion
C) Plyometric box jumps
D) Single-leg leg press at 90° flexion
Answer: B) Isometric quadriceps contraction at 60° knee flexion
Rationale: Isometrics reduce pain in tendinopathy without tendon strain. Decline
squats (load on stretch) are too advanced initially; plyometrics are later stage .
Q7. During the Sahrmann lower abdominal progression, a patient cannot
perform knee lift (stage 2) without lumbar extension. The NEXT step is:
A) Add a blood pressure cuff under the lumbar spine
B) Perform heel slides instead of knee lifts
C) Progress to stage 3 (leg lowering)
D) Perform stage 1 (abdominal bracing supine) for 2 more weeks
Answer: A) Add a blood pressure cuff under the lumbar spine
Rationale: A pressure biofeedback unit provides feedback to maintain neutral
spine. Regressing to stage 1 (D) may be necessary but feedback (A) is first-line
before full regression .
, Q8. A patient with rotator cuff tendinopathy has a painful arc (70°–120°
abduction). The FIRST strengthening exercise should be:
A) Empty can with 5 lbs
B) Sidelying external rotation at 0° abduction
C) Prone horizontal abduction with thumb up
D) Overhead press with 10 lbs
Answer: B) Sidelying external rotation at 0° abduction
Rationale: External rotation strengthening at 0° abduction minimizes subacromial
compression. Empty can (A) and overhead press (D) may impinge .
Q9. Which finding indicates a patient is ready to progress from partial weight-
bearing to full weight-bearing after ankle ORIF?
A) Visible edema over malleoli
B) Ability to perform 10 heel raises with no increase in pain
C) Pain with 4/10 during single-leg stance
D) Positive anterior drawer test
Answer: B) Ability to perform 10 heel raises with no increase in pain
Rationale: Heel raises test gastroc-soleus strength and loading tolerance. Edema
(A) or pain (C) suggests premature progression .
Q10. A patient with cervical radiculopathy (C7) has weakness in triceps and
wrist flexion. The MOST appropriate stabilization exercise is:
A) Prone neck extension with head lift
B) Chin tucks with a pressure biofeedback unit
C) Cervical side bending against resistance
D) Upper trapezius shrugs with 5 lbs
Answer: B) Chin tucks with a pressure biofeedback unit
Rationale: Deep neck flexor training (chin tucks) reduces mechanical load on
nerve roots. Prone extension (A) may increase foraminal narrowing .
500 Practice Questions with Verified Answers and Rationales |
Latest 2026-2027 | Graded A+
SECTION 1: THERAPEUTIC EXERCISE & REHABILITATION PROTOCOLS
Questions 1-80
Q1. A patient with chronic ankle instability fails the Star Excursion Balance Test
in the anteromedial reach direction. Which exercise is MOST appropriate
initially?
A) Single-limb stance on a firm surface with eyes open
B) Single-limb stance on a foam pad with eyes closed
C) Anterior reach on the uninvolved leg
D) Double-leg squat on a BOSU ball
Answer: A) Single-limb stance on a firm surface with eyes open
Rationale: Initial retraining begins with a stable, low-challenge environment (firm
surface, eyes open) to develop proprioceptive control before progressing to
unstable surfaces or reduced visual input .
Q2. Which finding BEST indicates progression from isometric to concentric-
eccentric rotator cuff strengthening?
A) Pain-free isometric contraction at 50% MVC
B) Full passive range of motion without pain
C) Ability to hold the arm in 90° abduction for 30 seconds without substitution
D) Negative drop arm test
Answer: C) Ability to hold the arm in 90° abduction for 30 seconds without
substitution
,Rationale: Functional isometric endurance (holding a position) precedes dynamic
concentric/eccentric control. The drop arm test (D) rules out full-thickness tear
but does not assess strength readiness .
Q3. A patient with patellofemoral pain exhibits excessive femoral adduction and
internal rotation during single-leg squat. Which muscle is MOST likely
underactive?
A) Gluteus maximus
B) Gluteus medius
C) Tensor fasciae latae
D) Quadratus lumborum
Answer: B) Gluteus medius
Rationale: Gluteus medius weakness allows femoral adduction and internal
rotation (dynamic valgus). TFL (C) is often overactive in this pattern .
Q4. During lumbar stabilization training, a patient cannot maintain a neutral
spine while performing a contralateral arm lift in quadruped. The MOST
appropriate cue is:
A) "Tuck your tailbone under"
B) "Arch your back more"
C) "Brace as if preparing for a punch"
D) "Relax your abdomen completely"
Answer: C) "Brace as if preparing for a punch"
Rationale: Bracing increases intra-abdominal pressure and encourages a neutral
spine. Posterior pelvic tilt (A) promotes flexion, worsening the pattern .
Q5. Which exercise BEST targets serratus anterior in a patient with scapular
winging?
,A) Seated rows with elbows tucked
B) Push-up plus at end range
C) Prone IYT raises
D) Standing external rotation with band
Answer: B) Push-up plus at end range
Rationale: Push-up plus (protraction at end range) selectively activates serratus
anterior. Rows (A) target rhomboids; IYT (C) targets lower/middle trapezius .
Q6. A patient with patellar tendinopathy (jumper's knee) has pain with single-
leg decline squats. The MOST appropriate initial exercise is:
A) Full-depth double-leg squat on flat surface
B) Isometric quadriceps contraction at 60° knee flexion
C) Plyometric box jumps
D) Single-leg leg press at 90° flexion
Answer: B) Isometric quadriceps contraction at 60° knee flexion
Rationale: Isometrics reduce pain in tendinopathy without tendon strain. Decline
squats (load on stretch) are too advanced initially; plyometrics are later stage .
Q7. During the Sahrmann lower abdominal progression, a patient cannot
perform knee lift (stage 2) without lumbar extension. The NEXT step is:
A) Add a blood pressure cuff under the lumbar spine
B) Perform heel slides instead of knee lifts
C) Progress to stage 3 (leg lowering)
D) Perform stage 1 (abdominal bracing supine) for 2 more weeks
Answer: A) Add a blood pressure cuff under the lumbar spine
Rationale: A pressure biofeedback unit provides feedback to maintain neutral
spine. Regressing to stage 1 (D) may be necessary but feedback (A) is first-line
before full regression .
, Q8. A patient with rotator cuff tendinopathy has a painful arc (70°–120°
abduction). The FIRST strengthening exercise should be:
A) Empty can with 5 lbs
B) Sidelying external rotation at 0° abduction
C) Prone horizontal abduction with thumb up
D) Overhead press with 10 lbs
Answer: B) Sidelying external rotation at 0° abduction
Rationale: External rotation strengthening at 0° abduction minimizes subacromial
compression. Empty can (A) and overhead press (D) may impinge .
Q9. Which finding indicates a patient is ready to progress from partial weight-
bearing to full weight-bearing after ankle ORIF?
A) Visible edema over malleoli
B) Ability to perform 10 heel raises with no increase in pain
C) Pain with 4/10 during single-leg stance
D) Positive anterior drawer test
Answer: B) Ability to perform 10 heel raises with no increase in pain
Rationale: Heel raises test gastroc-soleus strength and loading tolerance. Edema
(A) or pain (C) suggests premature progression .
Q10. A patient with cervical radiculopathy (C7) has weakness in triceps and
wrist flexion. The MOST appropriate stabilization exercise is:
A) Prone neck extension with head lift
B) Chin tucks with a pressure biofeedback unit
C) Cervical side bending against resistance
D) Upper trapezius shrugs with 5 lbs
Answer: B) Chin tucks with a pressure biofeedback unit
Rationale: Deep neck flexor training (chin tucks) reduces mechanical load on
nerve roots. Prone extension (A) may increase foraminal narrowing .
