LOYOLA EMS SYSTEM ENTRY EXAM / ACTUAL LOYOLA EMS
SYSTEM ENTRY EXAM 2026/2027 AND STUDY GUIDE COMPLETE
ACCURATE EXAM REAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (RELIABLE ANSWERS) CURRENTLY
UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION |GUARANTEED SUCCESS A+
(BRAND NEW!) FULL REVISED LOYOLA EMS SYSTEM ENTRY
APPROVED EXAM
1. A 45-year-old male presents with acute-onset substernal chest pressure radiating
to his left arm, accompanied by diaphoresis and nausea. His vital signs are BP
148/92, HR 98, RR 18, SpO2 96% on room air. Which of the following is the
priority intervention?
A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
C. Establish intravenous access
D. Administer aspirin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) is a critical early intervention for
suspected Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS) due to its irreversible inhibition of
platelet aggregation, which directly reduces mortality. While obtaining a 12-lead
ECG (B) is essential for diagnosis and establishing IV access (C) is necessary for
medication administration, the immediate priority is to administer aspirin to
mitigate ongoing thrombus formation. Nitroglycerin (A) is indicated for pain relief
but is contraindicated if the patient has taken phosphodiesterase inhibitors or has
right ventricular infarction, making it secondary to the mortality benefit of aspirin.
2. During the assessment of a 30-year-old female who is 28 weeks pregnant, you
note she is lying supine and complaining of dizziness and shortness of breath. Her
,BP is 88/62, HR 110, and skin is pale. Which of the following is the most
appropriate immediate action?
A. Administer a 500 mL fluid bolus
B. Place the patient in the left lateral recumbent position
C. Administer high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask
D. Elevate the patient’s legs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient is exhibiting signs of supine hypotensive syndrome, where
the gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava, significantly reducing venous
return and cardiac output. Placing the patient in the left lateral recumbent position
is the most effective immediate intervention to relieve this compression, improve
preload, and restore hemodynamic stability. While administering fluids (A) and
oxygen (C) may be indicated, the positioning maneuver addresses the primary
mechanical cause of the hypotension. Elevating the legs (D) is less effective than
lateral positioning in this specific obstetric emergency.
3. An unresponsive 6-year-old child is brought to you. You determine the child is
not breathing and has no pulse. What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio
for a single rescuer?
A. 30:2
B. 15:2
C. 3:1
D. 5:1
Correct Answer: A
,Rationale: For a single rescuer providing CPR to a child (age 1 year to puberty),
the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio is 30:2. This ratio is derived
from the 2020 American Heart Association guidelines to optimize coronary
perfusion pressure while ensuring adequate ventilation. A 15:2 ratio (B) is the
standard for a two-rescuer pediatric CPR. A 3:1 ratio (C) is the standard for
neonatal CPR.
4. A 55-year-old male with a history of emphysema presents with severe
respiratory distress. He is speaking in 1-2 word sentences and his breath sounds are
distant. His SpO2 is 86% on room air. Which of the following oxygen delivery
devices would provide the highest concentration of oxygen for this patient?
A. Nasal cannula at 6 L/min
B. Simple face mask at 10 L/min
C. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
D. Venturi mask at 24% FiO2
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A non-rebreather mask (NRB) with a reservoir bag, when set to 15
L/min, can deliver an FiO2 of up to 90-95%, making it the best choice for a patient
in severe respiratory distress requiring high-concentration oxygen. A nasal cannula
(A) provides approximately 24-44% FiO2, a simple face mask (B) provides 40-
60%, and a Venturi mask (D) provides a precise but lower concentration of oxygen
(24-50%), which is often used for patients with COPD who are at risk for hypoxic
drive.
5. You are called to a scene where a 22-year-old male has a large piece of rebar
impaled through his right thigh. The object is protruding from both sides of the
extremity. There is minimal active bleeding. What is the most appropriate
management of the impaled object?
, A. Carefully remove the rebar to facilitate wound care and bandaging
B. Cut the rebar close to the skin on both sides and remove it
C. Stabilize the rebar in place with bulky dressings
D. Apply a tourniquet proximal to the object and remove it
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An impaled object should never be removed in the prehospital setting
unless it interferes with airway management or CPR. Removal can cause
catastrophic hemorrhage and damage to surrounding structures. The standard of
care is to stabilize the object in place using bulky dressings to prevent movement,
which minimizes further injury and controls bleeding without exacerbating the
wound. Options A, B, and D all involve improper removal techniques that increase
the risk of severe hemorrhage and complications.
6. A patient with a suspected opioid overdose is unresponsive with a respiratory
rate of 6/min and pinpoint pupils. After opening the airway, you administer
naloxone. What is the most important immediate clinical endpoint to assess
following naloxone administration?
A. Pupillary dilation
B. Restoration of spontaneous breathing
C. Increase in level of consciousness to GCS 15
D. Normalization of heart rate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of naloxone administration in an opioid overdose is to
reverse respiratory depression. The most critical endpoint is the restoration of
adequate spontaneous breathing and oxygenation. While pupillary dilation (A) and
an increase in consciousness (C) are expected clinical responses, the immediate
SYSTEM ENTRY EXAM 2026/2027 AND STUDY GUIDE COMPLETE
ACCURATE EXAM REAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (RELIABLE ANSWERS) CURRENTLY
UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION |GUARANTEED SUCCESS A+
(BRAND NEW!) FULL REVISED LOYOLA EMS SYSTEM ENTRY
APPROVED EXAM
1. A 45-year-old male presents with acute-onset substernal chest pressure radiating
to his left arm, accompanied by diaphoresis and nausea. His vital signs are BP
148/92, HR 98, RR 18, SpO2 96% on room air. Which of the following is the
priority intervention?
A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
C. Establish intravenous access
D. Administer aspirin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) is a critical early intervention for
suspected Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS) due to its irreversible inhibition of
platelet aggregation, which directly reduces mortality. While obtaining a 12-lead
ECG (B) is essential for diagnosis and establishing IV access (C) is necessary for
medication administration, the immediate priority is to administer aspirin to
mitigate ongoing thrombus formation. Nitroglycerin (A) is indicated for pain relief
but is contraindicated if the patient has taken phosphodiesterase inhibitors or has
right ventricular infarction, making it secondary to the mortality benefit of aspirin.
2. During the assessment of a 30-year-old female who is 28 weeks pregnant, you
note she is lying supine and complaining of dizziness and shortness of breath. Her
,BP is 88/62, HR 110, and skin is pale. Which of the following is the most
appropriate immediate action?
A. Administer a 500 mL fluid bolus
B. Place the patient in the left lateral recumbent position
C. Administer high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask
D. Elevate the patient’s legs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient is exhibiting signs of supine hypotensive syndrome, where
the gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava, significantly reducing venous
return and cardiac output. Placing the patient in the left lateral recumbent position
is the most effective immediate intervention to relieve this compression, improve
preload, and restore hemodynamic stability. While administering fluids (A) and
oxygen (C) may be indicated, the positioning maneuver addresses the primary
mechanical cause of the hypotension. Elevating the legs (D) is less effective than
lateral positioning in this specific obstetric emergency.
3. An unresponsive 6-year-old child is brought to you. You determine the child is
not breathing and has no pulse. What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio
for a single rescuer?
A. 30:2
B. 15:2
C. 3:1
D. 5:1
Correct Answer: A
,Rationale: For a single rescuer providing CPR to a child (age 1 year to puberty),
the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio is 30:2. This ratio is derived
from the 2020 American Heart Association guidelines to optimize coronary
perfusion pressure while ensuring adequate ventilation. A 15:2 ratio (B) is the
standard for a two-rescuer pediatric CPR. A 3:1 ratio (C) is the standard for
neonatal CPR.
4. A 55-year-old male with a history of emphysema presents with severe
respiratory distress. He is speaking in 1-2 word sentences and his breath sounds are
distant. His SpO2 is 86% on room air. Which of the following oxygen delivery
devices would provide the highest concentration of oxygen for this patient?
A. Nasal cannula at 6 L/min
B. Simple face mask at 10 L/min
C. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
D. Venturi mask at 24% FiO2
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A non-rebreather mask (NRB) with a reservoir bag, when set to 15
L/min, can deliver an FiO2 of up to 90-95%, making it the best choice for a patient
in severe respiratory distress requiring high-concentration oxygen. A nasal cannula
(A) provides approximately 24-44% FiO2, a simple face mask (B) provides 40-
60%, and a Venturi mask (D) provides a precise but lower concentration of oxygen
(24-50%), which is often used for patients with COPD who are at risk for hypoxic
drive.
5. You are called to a scene where a 22-year-old male has a large piece of rebar
impaled through his right thigh. The object is protruding from both sides of the
extremity. There is minimal active bleeding. What is the most appropriate
management of the impaled object?
, A. Carefully remove the rebar to facilitate wound care and bandaging
B. Cut the rebar close to the skin on both sides and remove it
C. Stabilize the rebar in place with bulky dressings
D. Apply a tourniquet proximal to the object and remove it
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An impaled object should never be removed in the prehospital setting
unless it interferes with airway management or CPR. Removal can cause
catastrophic hemorrhage and damage to surrounding structures. The standard of
care is to stabilize the object in place using bulky dressings to prevent movement,
which minimizes further injury and controls bleeding without exacerbating the
wound. Options A, B, and D all involve improper removal techniques that increase
the risk of severe hemorrhage and complications.
6. A patient with a suspected opioid overdose is unresponsive with a respiratory
rate of 6/min and pinpoint pupils. After opening the airway, you administer
naloxone. What is the most important immediate clinical endpoint to assess
following naloxone administration?
A. Pupillary dilation
B. Restoration of spontaneous breathing
C. Increase in level of consciousness to GCS 15
D. Normalization of heart rate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of naloxone administration in an opioid overdose is to
reverse respiratory depression. The most critical endpoint is the restoration of
adequate spontaneous breathing and oxygenation. While pupillary dilation (A) and
an increase in consciousness (C) are expected clinical responses, the immediate
