1|Page
PHARM HESI PRACTICE TEST ACTUAL EXAM
PREP 2026 ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS QITH RATIONALES
ALREADY A GRADED WITH EXPERT
FEEDBACK |NEW AND REVISED
1. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which finding
indicates digoxin toxicity?
A. Tachycardia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting
D. Weight gain
Rationale: Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting are early signs of digoxin
toxicity. Other signs include visual disturbances (yellow-green halos),
bradycardia, and dysrhythmias. Hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia,
increases the risk of digoxin toxicity.
2. The nurse is teaching a client about warfarin therapy. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. "I will use an electric razor for shaving."
B. "I will take ibuprofen for headaches."
C. "I will increase my intake of leafy green vegetables."
D. "I can stop this medication if I have no side effects."
Rationale: Warfarin increases bleeding risk; patients should use a soft
toothbrush and electric razor to prevent bleeding. Vitamin K (leafy
green vegetables) antagonizes warfarin; NSAIDs increase bleeding
risk; abrupt discontinuation can cause thromboembolic events.
,2|Page
3. A client is prescribed lisinopril. Which adverse effect should the
nurse monitor?
A. Dry, persistent cough
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Angioedema
D. All of the above
Rationale: ACE inhibitors (lisinopril) can cause a dry cough,
hyperkalemia, and angioedema (rare but serious). All of these are
potential adverse effects requiring monitoring.
4. A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. Which
instruction is MOST important?
A. Take on an empty stomach
B. Take with meals to reduce GI upset
C. Take only when blood glucose is high
D. Take at bedtime
Rationale: Metformin should be taken with meals to reduce
gastrointestinal side effects. It is taken daily, not only when glucose is
high.
5. The nurse is administering a continuous IV heparin infusion.
Which laboratory value indicates therapeutic effect?
A. PT = 12 seconds
B. INR = 1.0
C. aPTT = 65 seconds
D. Platelet count = 180,000/mm³
Rationale: Heparin is therapeutic when aPTT is 1.5–2.5 times normal
(typically 60–80 seconds). PT and INR monitor warfarin therapy;
platelet count monitors for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.
,3|Page
6. A patient is prescribed enoxaparin (Lovenox) subcutaneously for
DVT prophylaxis. Which action is CORRECT when administering
this medication?
A. Aspirate before injecting
B. Massage the site after injection
C. Administer in the abdomen, alternating sites
D. Use a 1-inch needle
Rationale: Enoxaparin should be administered subcutaneously in the
abdomen, alternating sites to prevent hematoma formation. Aspiration
is not recommended; the site should not be massaged; a short (5/8-
inch) needle is typically used.
7. Before administering digoxin, which action is MOST important
for the nurse to perform?
A. Check the patient's blood pressure
B. Monitor the respiratory rate for one minute
C. Assess the apical pulse for one full minute
D. Verify the patient's serum glucose level
Rationale: Digoxin slows the heart rate. The apical pulse must be
assessed for 60 seconds prior to administration; the dose is typically
held if the heart rate is less than 60 beats per minute.
8. Which medication should the nurse expect to administer to a
patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
A. Salmeterol
B. Albuterol
C. Fluticasone
D. Montelukast
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) that
provides rapid bronchodilation. Salmeterol and fluticasone are used
for long-term maintenance, not rescue therapy.
, 4|Page
9. A patient is taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation. The nurse
should instruct the patient to maintain a consistent intake of which
food?
A. Bananas
B. Green leafy vegetables
C. Red meat
D. Dairy products
Rationale: Vitamin K (found in green leafy vegetables) antagonizes
warfarin. Patients should maintain consistent vitamin K intake to keep
INR stable.
10. A patient is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte
imbalance is the nurse MOST concerned about?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium
wasting, leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of
digoxin toxicity and cardiac arrhythmias.
11. A patient with tuberculosis is started on rifampin. Which patient
education is MOST important?
A. "This medication may cause weight gain."
B. "Your urine, sweat, and tears may turn orange-red."
C. "You should take this medication with food."
D. "This medication is taken once weekly."
Rationale: Rifampin commonly causes orange-red discoloration of
body fluids (urine, sweat, tears, sputum). This is a normal, harmless
PHARM HESI PRACTICE TEST ACTUAL EXAM
PREP 2026 ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS QITH RATIONALES
ALREADY A GRADED WITH EXPERT
FEEDBACK |NEW AND REVISED
1. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which finding
indicates digoxin toxicity?
A. Tachycardia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting
D. Weight gain
Rationale: Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting are early signs of digoxin
toxicity. Other signs include visual disturbances (yellow-green halos),
bradycardia, and dysrhythmias. Hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia,
increases the risk of digoxin toxicity.
2. The nurse is teaching a client about warfarin therapy. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. "I will use an electric razor for shaving."
B. "I will take ibuprofen for headaches."
C. "I will increase my intake of leafy green vegetables."
D. "I can stop this medication if I have no side effects."
Rationale: Warfarin increases bleeding risk; patients should use a soft
toothbrush and electric razor to prevent bleeding. Vitamin K (leafy
green vegetables) antagonizes warfarin; NSAIDs increase bleeding
risk; abrupt discontinuation can cause thromboembolic events.
,2|Page
3. A client is prescribed lisinopril. Which adverse effect should the
nurse monitor?
A. Dry, persistent cough
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Angioedema
D. All of the above
Rationale: ACE inhibitors (lisinopril) can cause a dry cough,
hyperkalemia, and angioedema (rare but serious). All of these are
potential adverse effects requiring monitoring.
4. A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. Which
instruction is MOST important?
A. Take on an empty stomach
B. Take with meals to reduce GI upset
C. Take only when blood glucose is high
D. Take at bedtime
Rationale: Metformin should be taken with meals to reduce
gastrointestinal side effects. It is taken daily, not only when glucose is
high.
5. The nurse is administering a continuous IV heparin infusion.
Which laboratory value indicates therapeutic effect?
A. PT = 12 seconds
B. INR = 1.0
C. aPTT = 65 seconds
D. Platelet count = 180,000/mm³
Rationale: Heparin is therapeutic when aPTT is 1.5–2.5 times normal
(typically 60–80 seconds). PT and INR monitor warfarin therapy;
platelet count monitors for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.
,3|Page
6. A patient is prescribed enoxaparin (Lovenox) subcutaneously for
DVT prophylaxis. Which action is CORRECT when administering
this medication?
A. Aspirate before injecting
B. Massage the site after injection
C. Administer in the abdomen, alternating sites
D. Use a 1-inch needle
Rationale: Enoxaparin should be administered subcutaneously in the
abdomen, alternating sites to prevent hematoma formation. Aspiration
is not recommended; the site should not be massaged; a short (5/8-
inch) needle is typically used.
7. Before administering digoxin, which action is MOST important
for the nurse to perform?
A. Check the patient's blood pressure
B. Monitor the respiratory rate for one minute
C. Assess the apical pulse for one full minute
D. Verify the patient's serum glucose level
Rationale: Digoxin slows the heart rate. The apical pulse must be
assessed for 60 seconds prior to administration; the dose is typically
held if the heart rate is less than 60 beats per minute.
8. Which medication should the nurse expect to administer to a
patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
A. Salmeterol
B. Albuterol
C. Fluticasone
D. Montelukast
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) that
provides rapid bronchodilation. Salmeterol and fluticasone are used
for long-term maintenance, not rescue therapy.
, 4|Page
9. A patient is taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation. The nurse
should instruct the patient to maintain a consistent intake of which
food?
A. Bananas
B. Green leafy vegetables
C. Red meat
D. Dairy products
Rationale: Vitamin K (found in green leafy vegetables) antagonizes
warfarin. Patients should maintain consistent vitamin K intake to keep
INR stable.
10. A patient is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte
imbalance is the nurse MOST concerned about?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium
wasting, leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of
digoxin toxicity and cardiac arrhythmias.
11. A patient with tuberculosis is started on rifampin. Which patient
education is MOST important?
A. "This medication may cause weight gain."
B. "Your urine, sweat, and tears may turn orange-red."
C. "You should take this medication with food."
D. "This medication is taken once weekly."
Rationale: Rifampin commonly causes orange-red discoloration of
body fluids (urine, sweat, tears, sputum). This is a normal, harmless