Duke University: NUR 580 (NUR580): Module 1 - 13 Quizzes | Answered latest summer 2026/27.

NUR 580 (NUR580): Module 1 - 13 Quizzes | Answered latest summer 2026/27. Module 1: Research Overview Quiz 1. Nursing research is significant to the profession of nursing because it promotes what? a. Decreased liability within the practice of nursing b. Expansion of the scope of nursing practice into areas formerly reserved for other disciplines c. Generation of a specialized body of nursing knowledge for use in nursing practice d. More specifically defined nursing practice responsibilities 2. Which of these actions demonstrates the role of a knowledgeable consumer of nursing research? a. Analyzing data to determine a study’s outcomes b. Implementing an intervention found to be effective in one clinical case study c. Designing a nursing research study d. Evaluating the credibility of research findings 3. What is the primary value of evidence-based nursing practice? a. Incorporating research findings with clinical expertise when individualizing patient care b. Separating nursing research as unique from the research of other disciplines c. Implementing the most cost-effective nursing practices when providing patient care d. Developing new nursing theories to promote the growth of nursing science 4. A nurse is analyzing a research article. Where in the article is the nurse likely to find the research question and study purpose? a. Methods b. Results c. Introduction d. Discussion 5. The nurse researcher is conducting a research study using subjects who will be interviewed regarding their experience with postpartum depression. For which of these reasons would the researcher select a qualitative, rather than a quantitative, research design? a. Qualitative research seeks to explain cause-and-effect relationships between variables. b. Quantitative research typically uses a convenience sample, seeking to answer a clinical question about a human experience. c. Quantitative research is usually conducted in natural settings using data that are words rather than numbers.d. Qualitative research collects data from a small number of subjects, allowing for in-depth study of a phenomenon. 6. Which of the following is a critical step for the quality improvement process in health care settings? a. Testing practice changes slowly and tentatively b. Adopting a practice change as a new standard of care c. Outlining general long-range goals d. Identifying current successful practices 7. The review of literature is important to the research process for which of these reasons? a. It identifies only gaps or inconsistencies in the knowledge base b. It guides all steps of the research process c. It guides only the conceptualization of the problem statement d. It provides a vehicle to disseminate the findings of the study 8. Which of these electronic databases is the most relevant and frequently used source for nursing literature? a. Cochrane Collaboration b. MEDLINE c. National Guideline Clearinghouse d. CINAHL 9. A general timeline for a literature search for an academic paper or project is to go back how far in the literature? a. At least the past 12 to 15 years b. At least the last 6 months to 2 years c. At least the past 6 to 10 years d. At least the past 3 to 5 years 10. Which website is an important source for clinical evidence but limited as a provider of primary documents for literature reviews? a. CINAHL b. PsychINFO c. Cochrane Library d. MEDLINEModule 2: Research Problems/Questions Quiz 1. How is a hypothesis related to a theory? a. Hypotheses can be developed in the absence of a theoretical framework. b. Hypotheses must be consistent with an existing theoretical framework. c. A theory can determine the validity of a hypothesis. d. A theory can be used to evaluate the merit of a hypothesis. 2. What is the key difference between independent and dependent variables? a. The dependent variable should change in response to manipulation by the independent variable. b. The independent variable should change in response to manipulation by the dependent variable. c. Although both the dependent and independent variables are manipulated, only the dependent variable is considered an intervention. d. Although both the dependent and independent variables are manipulated, only the independent variable is considered an intervention. 3. A nurse’s research question is, “How does maternal employment among health care professionals affect infant health during the first six months of life?” In this question, what is the dependent variable? a. Infant health b. Maternal employment c. First six months of life d. Health care professionals 4. A nurse has defined the research question as, “Is there a relationship between self-esteem and body weight among postmenopausal women?” What type of research-question format (or research design) is implied by this question? a. Correlational non-experimental b. Comparative non-experimental c. Quantitative experimental d. Grounded theory non-experimental 5. A nurse has defined a hypothesis as, “There will be no difference in the number of adverse events among patients discharged two days after an abdominal hysterectomy compared with patients discharged 4 days after an abdominal hysterectomy.” This statement is an example of what? a. Directional hypothesisb. Non-directional hypothesis c. Research hypothesis d. Null hypothesis 6. In which way are theory and practice interrelated for the hospital-based nurse researcher? a. Practice is the operational definition of theory. b. Practice provides the opportunity to test theory. c. Theory provides the evidence on which practice is based. d. Theory generates questions that are used to refine practice. 7. How is a model related to a concept or concepts? a. A model tests conceptual theories. b. A concept defines the purpose of a model. c. Relationships between or among concepts are demonstrated in a model. d. Concepts generate the theoretical basis for knowledge depicted in a model. 8. Which statement is an operational definition of a concept? a. Death anxiety is an uncomfortable feeling on contemplation of one’s own death, measured by Templar’s Death Anxiety Scale (Templar, 1986). b. Pain is a pattern of responses to protect the organism from harm (Sternbach, 1979). c. Maternal identity entails maternal cognitions and affect with regard to the maternal-infant relational system (Walker and Montgomery, 1994). d. Spirituality is a way of being or experiencing that comes about through an awareness of a transcendent dimension and one’s identifiable values with regard to self, other, nature, and whatever one considers to be ultimate (Elkins, 1988). 9. Which research report title suggests that theory was used as the framework for the study, rather than being generated as the outcome of the study? a. The experiences of nurse practitioners providing health care to the homeless (Seilor, A.J. & Moss, V.A., 2012) b. A transformative decision-making process for mammography screening among rural, low-income women (Purtzer, M.S., 2012) c. A randomized, clinical trial of education or motivational-interviewing-based coaching compared to usual care to improve cancer pain management (Thomas, M.L., et al., 2012) d. Older adults’ perceptions of feeling safe in an intensive care unit (Lasiter, S., 2011)10. When critiquing a research study’s theoretical framework, the nurse should keep in mind which information? (Select all that apply.) a. Theoretical frameworks guide hypothesis formulation in qualitative and quantitative research studies. b. Theoretical frameworks can be implicitly or explicitly stated in a research report. c. A theoretical framework of a nursing research study must be based on nursing theories or models. d. A theoretical framework may not be identified in all types of nursing research. Module 3: Qualitative Research Quiz 1. The determining factor for a researcher in selecting a qualitative research approach should be what? a. The need to test a theory b. The nature of the research question c. The age and gender of the research participants d. The availability of valid instruments to measure the phenomenon 2. Which research topic would most likely be studied through a qualitative research approach? a. The meaning of health and health promotion among low-income Southern rural women. b. Changes in hope and coping in older adults during rehabilitation after hip fracture. c. Exercise effects on fatigue and emotional distress during radiation therapy for breast cancer. d. Older adults and HIV/AIDS: The relationship of perceived risk and willingness to interact with individuals with HIV/AIDS. 3. How is the number of subjects for participation determined for a qualitative study? a. Data are collected from new subjects until data saturation is reached. b. The number of subjects is the number available at a specific location. c. The number of subjects is the number available within the researcher’s specified time frame. d. A power analysis of data collected in a pilot study is used to determine the number. 4. Which qualitative approach would be most appropriate for a nurse researcher to use when studying the daily experience of women undergoing radiation treatment for breast cancer?a. Case study b. Phenomenology c. Grounded theory d. Ethnographic method 5. What is the purpose of grounded theory? a. To expand the scope of nursing practice into areas formerly reserved for other disciplines b. To provide an exhaustive description of how individuals or groups have experienced an event c. To examine patterns of action and interaction between and among various types of social units d. To identify precepts and mores common to all members of a distinct cultural or ethnic group 6. What criterion of scientific rigor for qualitative research is met when the research report leads the reader from the research question and raw data through the steps of analysis and interpretation of the data? a. Confirmability b. Auditability c. Fittingness d. Credibility 7. Which factor in a research report indicates that the study used a qualitative design? a. Hypotheses are stated. b. The sample is described as convenient. c. People who participated in the study are described as informants. d. Participants completed a questionnaire to measure their understanding of the topic. 8. The identification of themes is important when reviewing findings of a qualitative research report because themes do what? a. Reflect congruence between the questions asked and the methodology b. Allow description of a large quantity of data in a condensed format c. Demonstrate both the emic and etic views of a topic d. Explain the nature of differences reported by participants experiencing a common phenomenon9. Which criterion helps to determine whether the results of a qualitative study can be applied beyond the study sample or population? a. Evidence of fittingness or transferability of the findings b. Evidence of trustworthiness or validity of the findings c. Credentials and experience of the person applying the findings d. Statistical significance and reliability of the findings 10. Before applying the results of a qualitative study in practice, the nurse should take several actions including which of these actions? a. Use triangulation to combine quantitative and qualitative methods in a replication study. b. Evaluate the credentials and experience of the researcher who conducted the study. c. Determine if the concepts/themes identified in the study support the work completed by other researchers. d. Be sure that the study’s findings were significant at the 0.05 or greater level of probability. Module 4: Research Designs 1. What is the overall purpose of the research design in a quantitative research study? a. To determine sample size b. To identify the problem statement c. To assist the researcher in identifying gaps in the knowledge base d. To provide the plan for answering the research question 2. Why should a nurse researcher want to limit or eliminate extraneous variables in a study? a. More research questions would be required to account for the extraneous variables. b. Extensive statistical analysis would be required to justify the presence of extraneous variables. c. Extraneous variables compete with the independent variables as explanations of the study’s outcome. d. Manipulation of the extraneous variables increases the risk for researcher bias in the study’s outcomes. 3. A nurse researcher assigns subjects to experimental and control groups in such a manner that each subject in a population has an equal chance of being selected. What is the researcher using?a. Selection bias b. Convenience sampling c. Randomization d. Internal validity 4. Which factors would be considered threats to internal validity? (Select all that apply.) a. Time b. Selection effects c. History d. Testing e. Subject availability f. Cost g. Selection bias 5. External validity refers to which of these issues? a. The relationship existing between the independent variable and the study outcomes b. The influence of a specific event on the independent variable c. The degree to which extraneous or mediating variables interfere with the study outcomes d. The degree to which findings are generalizable to populations beyond those studied 6. The nurse is critiquing a research study that used an experimental design. How can the nurse determine if the study’s results are able to infer causality? a. The relationship between independent and dependent variables must be reciprocal. b. The relationship between independent and dependent variables must not be explainable by any other variable. c. Both independent and dependent variables should be characterized by reactive effects. d. Both independent and dependent variables should change as a result of the treatment. 7. Randomization strengthens an experimental study in which of these ways? a. It reduces the risk that a subject will be harmed by participation in the study. b. It ensures that the experimental group and the control group have the same number of participants.c. It allows the study to proceed without the researcher knowing which group is the experimental treatment group. d. It increases the likelihood that the differences in outcomes between the groups are not related to chance alone. 8. How are threats to validity affected when studies are conducted in real-world settings? a. Threats to both internal and external validity are increased. b. Threats to both internal and external validity are decreased. c. Threats to internal validity are decreased, whereas threats to external validity are increased. d. Threats to internal validity are increased, while threats to external validity are decreased. 9. Which is a characteristic of quasi-experimental research designs that is considered a weakness, compared with experimental designs? a. Cost of implementation b. Confidence in making causal assertions c. Disruptive to the usual routine of the setting d. Difficult to perform in a particular clinical setting e. Findings not due to interference of extraneous variables 10. A nurse researcher is planning a quantitative (experimental) research study to test the effect of a new wound product on wound healing. Which of these factors is necessary to implement an experimental pretest-posttest design? a. Inclusion of a second control group b. No need to collect pretest data c. Use of two post-treatment data collection times d. Subjects randomized to the control group only e. Random assignment of subjects to treatment and control groups Module 5: Nonexperiemental Design 1. Why would a nurse researcher choose to use research studies that examine the associations or relationships between variables? a. A causal relationship can be determined between the variables. b. Greater manipulation of the variables is possible in this type of study. c. Randomization of participants allows for increased generalizability. d. There is application in clinical settings and a foundation for future experimental studies.2. Which statement about cross-sectional studies is most accurate? a. More than one group can be compared. b. Only descriptive data can be measured. c. Data are collected retrospectively rather than prospectively. d. Data collection and data analysis can occur simultaneously. 3. A nurse researcher would decide to use a retrospective or ex post facto study for which reason? a. Obtaining informed consent is not an important issue. b. There is maximal opportunity to manipulate the independent variable. c. The dependent variable is measured at multiple times to examine maturation. d. The dependent variable has already been affected by the independent variable. 4. Which type of study should be used when data are collected at only one point in time? a. Cross-sectional b. Retrospective c. Longitudinal d. Prospective 5. Data collection instruments were sent to the same sample of women at six different times during the first year of living with breast cancer. What type of study design does this exemplify? a. Cross-sectional b. Retrospective c. Longitudinal d. Correlational 6. What threat to internal validity is most closely associated with a longitudinal design? a. Instrumental effects b. Mortality effects c. History effects d. Selection bias 7. What study design allows study participants to serve as their own controls, allowing early trends in the data to emerge? a. Cross-sectional b. Ex post facto c. Retrospective d. Longitudinal8. The longitudinal study and the prospective study are similar for which reason? a. Each moves forward in time b. Each has an experimental focus. c. Each is able to establish causal relationships. d. Each selects different samples from the same population at various periods of time. 9. What type of research will assist a nurse researcher in focusing on the theory and development of measurement instruments? a. Meta-analysis b. Psychometrics c. Methodology d. Data management 10. How does an experimental research design differ from a non-experimental research design? a. Experimental designs allow observation of a phenomenon as it naturally occurs, and non-experimental designs permit environmental manipulation. b. Non-experimental designs manipulate the dependent variable, and experimental designs manipulate the independent variable. c. Non-experimental designs attempt to test differences among variables, and experimental designs attempt to establish cause-and-effect relationships. d. Experimental designs are scientific, and nonexperimental designs have no scientific basis. Module 6: Reliability Validity Instrument 1. What should the nurse researcher expect to be the difference between data collection for patient care and data collection for the purposes of research? a. For patient care, data are obtained from the patient and medical record; for research, data are obtained only from the patient. b. Data collection for research may include direct patient quotations; in patient care, recording of direct quotations is avoided. c. During research data collection, there is no direct interaction between the nurse and the patient. d. Data collection for research purposes must be objective and systematic.2. What is an example of a physiologic measurement? a. Definition of a type A behavior pattern b. Description of self-care behavior abilities in patients with dementia c. Ranges of values on two consecutive arterial blood gas analyses d. Adjusted scores on the State-Trait Anxiety Scale 3. What advantage is shared by both interview and questionnaire data collection methods? a. Both seek to understand the attitudes, beliefs, and feelings of participants. b. Both are analyzed by statistical methods selected by the researcher. c. Both require extensive training of the researcher coordinating the study. d. Both are paper-and-pencil tests implemented by the researcher. 4. Use of records or data-available methods of data collection would be most appropriate in which case? a. When research subjects are considered to be illiterate b. When participants are not known to be reliable historians c. When the goal of research is to analyze trends and change over time d. When the researcher suspects the subject may alter responses to please the researcher 5. Which data collection method can be assessed by asking, “Is there evidence that subjects were able to answer the questions?” a. Questionnaires b. Interviews c. Physiologic measurement d. Records and databases 6. Nurse researchers critiquing research reports should be concerned with the assessment of the validity and reliability of study instruments to do what? a. To determine the utility of the instruments for triangulation b. To assess the relationships between the hypotheses and the research questions c. To determine whether the concepts and variables were measured adequately d. To assess whether the concept under study is being treated as a dependent or an independent variable 7. A researcher who is developing a new instrument to measure pain has been informed that the instrument has face validity. The researcher’s next step should be to do what? a. Use the instrument in a parent study.b. Use the instrument in a pilot study. c. Assess the reliability of the instrument. d. Assess the content validity of the instrument. 8. The reliability coefficient of a new instrument is established at 0.86. The nurse researcher should interpret this finding to mean what? a. High error variance; high reliability b. High error variance; low reliability c. Low error variance; high reliability d. Low error variance; low reliability 9. A nurse researcher would want to use a Cronbach’s alpha coefficient to establish the internal consistency of an instrument in which case? a. When questions are open-ended b. When questions/statements demand a yes or no response c. When the instrument uses a Likert-type response scale d. When the instrument is designed to measure more than one concept 10. The nurse researcher notes that test-retest correlations were r = 0.79 when given over 4-week intervals. This is interpreted to indicate what? a. Equivalence b. Discriminability c. Reliability d. Homogeneity Module 7: Sampling 1. How should a nurse researcher expect a sample to differ from a population? a. A sample can mean objects or events, whereas population refers to individuals or groups of people. b. A population has a broad set of defining characteristics, and a sample has a narrow set of defining characteristics. c. A population is a representative segment of a defined sample. d. A sample is a representative segment of a defined population. 2. Which statement is most accurate regarding inclusion and exclusion criteria? a. These criteria are not needed when the population being studied is composed of events.b. These criteria serve to ensure that the characteristics of the sample and the population are congruent. c. Inclusion criteria are used to define the independent variables, and exclusion criteria are used to define dependent variables. d. Inclusion criteria are used to define the dependent variables, and exclusion criteria are used to define independent variables. 3. A nurse researcher should be concerned about establishing clear eligibility criteria for inclusion in a study sample because such criteria will do what? a. Increase the homogeneity of the sample b. Decrease the homogeneity of the sample c. Increase the size of the sample d. Decrease the size of the sample 4. A nurse researcher should attempt to clearly specify exclusion criteria for a study sample because such criteria will do what? a. Limit the time needed to complete the study b. Reduce the effect of extraneous variables on the accurate evaluation of the outcome variable c. Eliminate the outside influences and inferences regarding the effectiveness of a behavioral intervention d. Ensure that an adequate sample size is accrued to meet assumptions for accurate statistical analysis 5. The nurse researcher knows that a sample is representative of a population when which statement is true? a. The sample is homogeneous. b. All units of a population are included. c. The most readily accessible persons are used as subjects. d. The characteristics of the sample closely approximate those of the population. 6. Which type of sampling is most at risk for sample bias? a. Quota b. Random c. Purposive d. Convenience 7. A nurse researcher opts to use a stratified sample in a research study for which reason?a. The sample population is divided into subsets that are homogeneous for a particular trait or feature. b. The sample population is divided into subsets for random assignment into an intervention or a usual-care group. c. The sample population is randomly assigned to a specific subgroup that will vary from the others on the basis of type of treatment. d. The sample population is randomly assigned to a specific subgroup that will vary from the others on the basis of treatment duration. 8. A nurse researcher can most accurately use the technique of power analysis to do what? a. To estimate sample size. b. To establish sampling strata. c. To assign subjects randomly. d. To analyze sample representativeness. 9. A research consumer should evaluate sample size in a research report by doing what? a. By asking how many assistants were involved in data collection b. By asking how representative the sample is relative to the target population c. By asking how great the outcome difference is between or among study groups d. By asking how many previous studies the researcher has conducted on similar topics 10. Which statement regarding sample size is most accurate? a. Studies with smaller sample sizes have more accurate results. b. Studies with smaller sample sizes are more likely to be representative of the target population. c. Studies with larger sample sizes have more accurate results. d. Studies with larger sample sizes are more likely to be representative of the target population. Module 8: Understanding Statistics 1. In general, in statistics, interval and ratio data can be analyzed in the same fashion. a. True b. False 2. Which of the following variables is not measured at the nominal level? a. Age b. Racec. Gender d. Political affiliation 3. In the following hypothesis what is the independent variable? The annual income of MBA graduates is higher than the annual income of MSN graduates. a. There is no independent variable, the hypothesis is simply asking for a description of the variables. b. Income is the IV c. The grouping variable or IV is MBA versus MSN d. None of the above 4. To use inferential parametric statistics, which of the following must be present in the data collected in the study? a. Normal distribution of the dependent variable b. The dependent variable is measured at the interval/ratio level or is interval like in nature c. The independent variable must have 3 groups d. Both A and B are correct 5. In analyzing a research question or hypothesis it is important to ask which of the following questions? a. What is the research question or hypothesis asking? b. What is the level of measurement of the IV and the DV? c. Are assumptions of the statistical test met, particularly normal distribution of the DV? d. All are correct. 6. For nominal data, parametric statistical tests are most frequently used.. a. True b. False 7. What is the DV in the following research hypothesis? Women aged 65 and older who take recommended calcium supplements will have greater bone density than women aged 65 and older who do not take recommended calcium supplements. a. Women who take calcium supplements and those who do notb. The recommended dose of calcium c. Bone density d. None of the above 8. Which of the following is measured at the ordinal level? a. White blood cell count measured using laboratory methods b. Race measured using categories approved by the US census department c. Educational level measured by grade school, high school or greater than high school d. Temperature measured using the Kelvin scale. 9. Parametric statistics are generally considered more powerful than non-parametric statistics because they are more likely to find statistical significance if the alternative hypothesis is true ( for example, a difference when there is a difference). a. True b. False 10. Which of the following is an example of a discrete variable? a. Annual income b. Number of emergency department visits in one year c. Cholesterol level d. Score on the Mini-Mental State Exam Module 9: Descriptive Stats Quiz 1. Standard deviation is a measure of a. Dispersion b. Skew c. Kurtosis d. Central tendency 2. Range is defined as the difference between the minimum value and the maximum value. In reporting range, however, researchers generally report: a. Whether the range was large or small b. The maximum value c. The actual minimum and maximum value3. Robert reported that the mean O2 saturation of his sample was 95 with a standard deviation of +/- 2. Assuming the values were relatively normally distributed, this means: a. About 68% of the sat values fall between 93 and 97 b. About 97% of the sat values fall between 96 and 94 c. There was little variability in sat values d. One fourth of the sample was hypoxic 4. Descriptive statistics are used for all of the following except a. To answer research questions b. To describe the sample c. To statistically test a hypothesis 5. The standard deviation is easier to interpret as a measure of variability than variance because: a. The standard deviation is in the same unit of measurement as the variable -- while variance is not reported in the same unit of measurement b. Variance is more closely related to the range, while standard deviation is in reference to the mean c. Variance has a complex mathematical formula while the formula for the standard deviation is simple 6. Jane administered a visual analogue scale in measuring pain to 100 post-operative patients. In reviewing her descriptive statistics, she found that the most frequent scores -- in equal numbers -- were 4 and 5 (on an 11 point scale of 0 to 10). This is best described as: a. A skewed distribution b. Bi-modal c. A mode of 4.5 d. N and % 7. Joe measured depression in 40 patients. Possible scores on the depression scale he used ranged from 0 (no depression) to 80 (severe clinical depression). For his sample, the mean score was 26, the mode was 20 and the median was 23. Actual scores ranged from 4 to 50. If the individual who scored 50 had scored 80, which of the following measures of central tendency would change? a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. All three measures would change8. Standard deviation is a measure of a. Dispersion b. Skew c. Kurtosis d. Central tendency 9. Nominal data are best presented using the mean and standard deviation. a. True b. False 10. Chet collected data regarding the wealth (annual income) of people in his community. In looking at his frequency distribution and descriptive statistics, he found the distribution was seriously skewed. In reporting his data regarding the communities wealth, most likely he should: a. Report the mode only b. Report the range and median c. Report the mean and standard deviation Module 10: Inferential Statistics 1. The null or statistical hypothesis proposes: a. The sample size is too small b. Any difference is not attributable to chance alone c. There is a statistically significant difference d. There is no difference 2. The usual level of statistical significance set by researchers is: a. An alpha or p value of 0.10 b. A beta or B value of 0.001 c. Nothing is usual in statistics d. An alpha or p value of 0.05 3. One way of preventing a type II error is to: a. Decrease the sample size b. A type II error is a fact of life, and nothing can be done to control it. However, you can take it into consideration when interpreting your results c. Set the alpha level at 0.01d. Increase the sample size 4. In a variable that is normally distributed, within + or - 1 standard deviation from the mean, you will find a. 40% of the values of the variable b. Variables that are normally distributed do not have standard deviations c. 96% of the values of the variable d. 68% of the values of the variable 5. If a researcher has a strong basis for predicting a specific direction for results (a directional hypothesis), then the statistical test used should employ a. An approach that sets the alpha at 0.05 b. A three-tailed approach c. A one-tailed approach d. A two-tailed approach 6. Statistical significance and clinical significance are the same a. False b. True 7. In setting a significance level, most researchers use an alpha of 0.05. This means: a. The findings will be true for 95% of the sample b. If your findings are significant, you accept the possibility that five time out of one hundred, they could occur by chance or random error c. Five percent of the sample are outliers d. The chance of committing a type II error is high 8. One way to control for a type I error is to: a. Alter the level of significance -- that is set the alpha or p value to 0.01 instead of 0.05 b. Use a convenience sample and recruit at least 200 subjects c. Set the alpha or p value at a more reasonable level, say 0.10 instead of 0.05 d. Little can be done to control for type I errors other than to take such possibility into account in interpreting your findings 9. The "power" of a test is most directly related to: a. The likelihood of committing a type II error b. Equivalent to the alpha or p valuec. The likelihood of committing a type I error 10. Confidence intervals tell us: a. What the high and low estimate of the mean score is b. Where 95 or 99 percent of the population can be found c. The range of values that has a high probability of containing the population value Module 11: Correlation & Regression 1. The parametric test used to test for a relationship usually is: a. Tetchroic b. Gossett's t c. Pearson's r d. Kendall's Tau 2. Pearson r cannot detect which of the following relationships? a. Negative b. Curvilinear c. Positive 3. The correlation coefficient r can range from: a. -1 to +1 b. -1 to 0 c. 0 to +1 d. 1 to 10 4. To determine the magnitude of the relationship between the Mini-Mental State Exam and the Neecham Confusion Scale scores, one should: a. Divide the p value by 2 b. Square the r value c. Call a statistician d. Run a scatter plot 5. In a simple regression: a. There is one dependent variable that is interval in nature b. There are two dependent variables that are nominal in nature c. There is one independent variable that is nominal in nature d. There is one independent variable that is interval in nature e. B and C are correctf. A and D are correct 6. In the regression equation Y = a + bx, Y is: a. The dependent variable b. The intercept c. The slope d. The independent variable 7. Professor Smith ran a simple regression equation using midterm exam scores to predict final exam scores. The R square was 0.91 and this was statistically significant (p=0.0001). Using the following simple regression equation generated by Professor Smith, predict the final exam score Y when the midterm score is 75: Y=1.5 + .9(75). a. 69 b. 55 c. 82 d. 91 8. Age, undergraduate GPA and IQ were used to predict scores on the GRE. The R was .72 and was statistically significant. This means: a. The predictor variables are not very helpful in understanding GRE scores b. Seventy-two percent of the variance in GRE scores is explained by the predictor variables c. About 48% of the variance is GRE scores is explained by something else d. This is an unreasonable prediction as IQ is gender biased 9. In simple regression, we would be able to make a perfect prediction if: a. It is impossible to make a perfect prediction b. The correlation was 0 c. The slope was 1 d. The correlation between variables was +1 or -1 10. In multiple regression, the effect size is defined as: a. The slope b. Beta squared c. R squared d. Error varianceModule 12: Chi Square & t Test 1. Nurse Jones began using pain as the fifth vital sign and became very interested in the different patient responses to pain relief. Over time she wondered if the difference had to do with whether her post-operative patients were receiving Demerol or Morphine. She conducted a prospective study where according to the physician's preference the patient received an equigesic dose of either Demerol (group 1) or Morphine (group 2) on the first post-operative day. The dependent variable was the patient's self pain rating on an analog scale where 0 equaled no pain and 10 equaled the worst pain possible. There were 50 patients in each of her groups. Assuming that the assumptions were met, which test would you run? a. Chi-square b. Independent t test c. Paired t test d. Pearson's r 2. Nurse Jones decided to run the independent t. Given these results, what was the mean difference in pain ratings? mean pain rating group 1: 5.6 (sd 1.2) mean pain rating group 2: 4.4 ( sd 1.0) difference: 1.2 (sd=2.152) (se=.221) t = 5.43, p = 0.0001, df = 98. a. .6107 b. 3.99 c. 1.2 d. 2.951 3. From a clinical point of view, how would you interpret the results from the previous question? a. There wasn't any difference in pain rating by groups -- Demerol and Morphine were equally effective (or ineffective) b. Post-operative patients who received Morphine had significantly lower pain ratings than post-operative patients who received Demerol c. No interpretation can be made 4. From a statistical point of view, how would you describe the findings: a. There was no statistically significant difference in mean pain scores between the Demerol and Morphine groups [t(98) = 1.2, p=3.99]. b. There was a statistically significant difference in mean pain rating between groups [t(98)=5.43, p=0.0001]. c. The sample size was too small to draw any statistical conclusions5. In many research studies, the same subjects are used twice -- first they are measured on some variable, then given an intervention, then measured again on the same variable. Consider: Fifty female subjects were asked before and after a special education program whether they practiced breast self-exam (BSE). A 2 x 2 contingency table was constructed (BSE - yes or no before intervention and BSE - yes or no after intervention). Since the two variables are not independent (the same people are being measured each time) the chi-square test is not appropriate, even though the variables are nominal and the data frequency counts. In this case you should use: a. Kendall's Tau b. McNemar test c. Descriptive statistics only 6. In the t-test, the dependent or response variable is measured at the: a. Nominal level b. Interval level c. Nominal or ordinal level 7. If the dependent (response variable) is seriously skewed (thus violating one of the assumptions of the independent t-test) which of the following test might be appropriate to use? a. Mann-Whitney U b. Wilcoxon c. ANOVA d. Paired t-test 8. In chi-square, variables are: a. Nominal in nature b. Ratio in nature c. Ordinal in nature d. Interval in nature 9. In a 2 x 2 chi square contingency table the degrees of freedom (df) would be: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 10. In chi-square, the null hypothesis is that: a. Variables are independent of each otherb. The observed frequency is significantly different than the expected frequency c. One variable influences another Module 13: ANOVA 1. In general, the greater the between group variance compared to the within group variance, the more likely you are to: a. Find statistical significance b. Support the null hypothesis c. Conclude that your sample was too small d. Reject the research hypothesis 2. In one-way analysis of variance, the independent variable (also called the factor or grouping variable) can be measured at the: a. Any level b. Nominal level c. Interval level d. Ratio level 3. In a one-way ANOVA, which of the following are true: a. It is conducted to analyze a dependent variable that is measured at the interval or ratio level b. Its outcome is a numerical value for the F statistic c. Is similar to the t-test because the null hypothesis (no differences between groups) is rejected when the analysis yields a smaller p value (e.g., .05) d. All of the above are true. 4. Although the ANOVA is a very robust test, when the assumptions for the test are seriously violated, you should consider running: a. Pearson's r b. Multiple t tests c. Kendall's Tau d. Kruskall-Wallis Test 5. The t-Test is superior to the ANOVA when conducting multiple comparisons. a. True b. False6. Researcher LeBlanc was interested in oncology nurses' attitudes toward palliative care with four age groups of patients who all had cancer: pediatric (15), adolescent or young adult (15-39), middle age (40-64), and elderly (64). After gathering data, she ran a one-way ANOVA. The F value was 22.4 and the p value was 0.005. In interpreting her findings, she should: a. Report that there is no statistically significant difference among groups b. Report that all three groups were significantly different c. Check the power of her test, as these findings are suspect d. Run a post-hoc test (Scheffe or Tukey) to see which groups differed 7. Which of the following is NOT an assumption for the ANOVA? a. The groups can not be mutually exclusive. b. The groups should have equal variance (i.e., homogeneity of variance). c. The observations are independent. d. The dependent variable is measured at the interval or ratio level. 8. The ANOVA examines variance to determine if the group means differ. a. True b. False 9. The null hypothesis in one-way analysis of variance is: a. The group means are statistically significantly different from one another b. The within group variance is significantly smaller than the between group variance c. The total variance is greater than the within group variance d. Any difference in group means comes from a sampling error 10. The statistic reported in one-way ANOVA is: a. t b. K c. F d. R