Loyola EMS System Entry Exam Prep |
Complete Study Guide | Verified Questions
& Correct Answers | Latest Updated
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Question 1
What is the maximum dose of dopamine for cardiogenic shock?
A) 5-10 mcg/kg/min
B) 5-20 mcg/kg/min
C) 10-30 mcg/kg/min
D) 20-50 mcg/kg/min
Correct Answer: B) 5-20 mcg/kg/min
Rationale: The Loyola EMS protocol specifies dopamine for cardiogenic shock at a dose range
of 5-20 mcg/kg/min. This is the standard inotropic support dose for hemodynamic ally
unstable patients requiring cardiac output enhancement.
Question 2
Etomidate should NOT be used in patients under what age?
A) 10 years
B) 12 years
C) 15 years
D) 18 years
Correct Answer: C) 15 years
,Rationale: Etomidate is contraindicated in patients under 15 years of age according to Loyola
EMS protocols. Alternative induction agents such as ketamine should be considered for
pediatric patients.
Question 3
What is the correct adult drug-assisted intubation procedure?
A) Ketamine 1 mg/kg slow IV, repeat 0.5 mg/kg
B) Ketamine 2 mg/kg slow IV (max 10 mg), repeat 1/2 dose OR Etomidate 0.6 mg/kg (max 40
mg)
C) Etomidate 1 mg/kg slow IV only
D) Versed 0.3 mg/kg slow IV
Correct Answer: B) Ketamine 2 mg/kg slow IV (max 10 mg), repeat 1/2 dose OR
Etomidate 0.6 mg/kg (max 40 mg)
Rationale: The Loyola adult drug-assisted intubation protocol provides two options: ketamine
2 mg/kg slow IV (max 10 mg) with the ability to repeat half the dose, or etomidate 0.6 mg/kg
not to exceed 40 mg. If a gag reflex is present, benzocaine spray should be applied 1-2
seconds x2 after 30 seconds, followed by post-intubation sedation with versed 2 mg every 2
minutes up to 10 mg maximum.
Question 4
What is the appropriate treatment for adult acute asthma with no response to albuterol and
severe distress?
A) Repeat albuterol at double dose
B) CPAP with in-line albuterol max peep 10, administer epi 1:1 0.3 mg IM
C) Immediate intubation
D) Administer magnesium sulfate
,Correct Answer: B) CPAP with in-line albuterol max peep 10, administer epi 1:1 0.3 mg
IM
Rationale: For adult acute asthma with no response to initial albuterol 2.5 mg and severe
distress, the protocol requires CPAP with in-line albuterol at max peep of 10, along with
epinephrine 1:1,000 0.3 mg IM. This combination provides bronchodilation and systemic
support.
Question 5
A patient in anaphylaxis with signs of hypo perfusion should receive:
A) Epinephrine 1:1,000 0.3 mg IM only
B) IV/IO fluid bolus 200 ml increments, Epinephrine 1:10,000 0.1 mg slow IVP q 3 min (up to
0.5 mg), Benadryl 50 mg slow IV/IO/IM
C) Benadryl 50 mg IM and albuterol nebulizer
D) Solu-Medrol 125 mg IV
Correct Answer: B) IV/IO fluid bolus 200 ml increments, Epinephrine 1:10,000 0.1 mg
slow IVP q 3 min (up to 0.5 mg), Benadryl 50 mg slow IV/IO/IM
Rationale: Anaphylaxis with hypo perfusion requires aggressive management including fluid
resuscitation in 200 ml increments, IV epinephrine (1:10,000 concentration, 0.1 mg slow IVP
every 3 minutes up to 0.5 mg maximum), and Benadryl 50 mg slow IV/IO/IM. Albuterol
should be considered if wheezing is present.
Question 6
For anaphylaxis without signs of hypo perfusion, when should medical control be contacted?
A) For all patients receiving epinephrine
B) For patients >50 years old or with cardiac disease
C) For patients requiring a second dose of Benadryl
D) For patients with respiratory distress
, Correct Answer: B) For patients >50 years old or with cardiac disease
Rationale: In anaphylaxis without hypo perfusion, the protocol allows for Benadryl 50 mg IM
or slow IVP and epinephrine 1:1,000 0.3 mg IM, which may be repeated once after 15
minutes. Medical control should be contacted specifically for patients over 50 years of age or
those with cardiac disease.
Question 7
What is the treatment for beta blocker or calcium channel blocker overdose?
A) Atropine 2 mg rapid IVP
B) Glucagon 1 mg slow IVP (repeat x1), consider transcutaneous pacing
C) Epinephrine drip
D) Calcium chloride 1 gram IV
Correct Answer: B) Glucagon 1 mg slow IVP (repeat x1), consider transcutaneous pacing
Rationale: Beta blocker and calcium channel blocker overdoses are treated with glucagon 1
mg slow IVP, which can be repeated once. If no success is achieved, transcutaneous pacing
should be considered. Glucagon works by increasing intracellular camp, bypassing the beta-
receptor blockade.
Question 8
Organophosphate poisoning (SLUDGEBAM) should be treated with:
A) Pralidoxime 2 grams IV
B) Atropine 2 mg rapid IVP q 3 minutes (no max dose)
C) Diazepam 5 mg IV
D) Sodium bicarbonate 1 mEq/kg
Complete Study Guide | Verified Questions
& Correct Answers | Latest Updated
Version | Exam Prep | 100% Pass Success
Resource | Instant Download PDF
Question 1
What is the maximum dose of dopamine for cardiogenic shock?
A) 5-10 mcg/kg/min
B) 5-20 mcg/kg/min
C) 10-30 mcg/kg/min
D) 20-50 mcg/kg/min
Correct Answer: B) 5-20 mcg/kg/min
Rationale: The Loyola EMS protocol specifies dopamine for cardiogenic shock at a dose range
of 5-20 mcg/kg/min. This is the standard inotropic support dose for hemodynamic ally
unstable patients requiring cardiac output enhancement.
Question 2
Etomidate should NOT be used in patients under what age?
A) 10 years
B) 12 years
C) 15 years
D) 18 years
Correct Answer: C) 15 years
,Rationale: Etomidate is contraindicated in patients under 15 years of age according to Loyola
EMS protocols. Alternative induction agents such as ketamine should be considered for
pediatric patients.
Question 3
What is the correct adult drug-assisted intubation procedure?
A) Ketamine 1 mg/kg slow IV, repeat 0.5 mg/kg
B) Ketamine 2 mg/kg slow IV (max 10 mg), repeat 1/2 dose OR Etomidate 0.6 mg/kg (max 40
mg)
C) Etomidate 1 mg/kg slow IV only
D) Versed 0.3 mg/kg slow IV
Correct Answer: B) Ketamine 2 mg/kg slow IV (max 10 mg), repeat 1/2 dose OR
Etomidate 0.6 mg/kg (max 40 mg)
Rationale: The Loyola adult drug-assisted intubation protocol provides two options: ketamine
2 mg/kg slow IV (max 10 mg) with the ability to repeat half the dose, or etomidate 0.6 mg/kg
not to exceed 40 mg. If a gag reflex is present, benzocaine spray should be applied 1-2
seconds x2 after 30 seconds, followed by post-intubation sedation with versed 2 mg every 2
minutes up to 10 mg maximum.
Question 4
What is the appropriate treatment for adult acute asthma with no response to albuterol and
severe distress?
A) Repeat albuterol at double dose
B) CPAP with in-line albuterol max peep 10, administer epi 1:1 0.3 mg IM
C) Immediate intubation
D) Administer magnesium sulfate
,Correct Answer: B) CPAP with in-line albuterol max peep 10, administer epi 1:1 0.3 mg
IM
Rationale: For adult acute asthma with no response to initial albuterol 2.5 mg and severe
distress, the protocol requires CPAP with in-line albuterol at max peep of 10, along with
epinephrine 1:1,000 0.3 mg IM. This combination provides bronchodilation and systemic
support.
Question 5
A patient in anaphylaxis with signs of hypo perfusion should receive:
A) Epinephrine 1:1,000 0.3 mg IM only
B) IV/IO fluid bolus 200 ml increments, Epinephrine 1:10,000 0.1 mg slow IVP q 3 min (up to
0.5 mg), Benadryl 50 mg slow IV/IO/IM
C) Benadryl 50 mg IM and albuterol nebulizer
D) Solu-Medrol 125 mg IV
Correct Answer: B) IV/IO fluid bolus 200 ml increments, Epinephrine 1:10,000 0.1 mg
slow IVP q 3 min (up to 0.5 mg), Benadryl 50 mg slow IV/IO/IM
Rationale: Anaphylaxis with hypo perfusion requires aggressive management including fluid
resuscitation in 200 ml increments, IV epinephrine (1:10,000 concentration, 0.1 mg slow IVP
every 3 minutes up to 0.5 mg maximum), and Benadryl 50 mg slow IV/IO/IM. Albuterol
should be considered if wheezing is present.
Question 6
For anaphylaxis without signs of hypo perfusion, when should medical control be contacted?
A) For all patients receiving epinephrine
B) For patients >50 years old or with cardiac disease
C) For patients requiring a second dose of Benadryl
D) For patients with respiratory distress
, Correct Answer: B) For patients >50 years old or with cardiac disease
Rationale: In anaphylaxis without hypo perfusion, the protocol allows for Benadryl 50 mg IM
or slow IVP and epinephrine 1:1,000 0.3 mg IM, which may be repeated once after 15
minutes. Medical control should be contacted specifically for patients over 50 years of age or
those with cardiac disease.
Question 7
What is the treatment for beta blocker or calcium channel blocker overdose?
A) Atropine 2 mg rapid IVP
B) Glucagon 1 mg slow IVP (repeat x1), consider transcutaneous pacing
C) Epinephrine drip
D) Calcium chloride 1 gram IV
Correct Answer: B) Glucagon 1 mg slow IVP (repeat x1), consider transcutaneous pacing
Rationale: Beta blocker and calcium channel blocker overdoses are treated with glucagon 1
mg slow IVP, which can be repeated once. If no success is achieved, transcutaneous pacing
should be considered. Glucagon works by increasing intracellular camp, bypassing the beta-
receptor blockade.
Question 8
Organophosphate poisoning (SLUDGEBAM) should be treated with:
A) Pralidoxime 2 grams IV
B) Atropine 2 mg rapid IVP q 3 minutes (no max dose)
C) Diazepam 5 mg IV
D) Sodium bicarbonate 1 mEq/kg
