1|Page
PHARMACOLOGY HESI RN EXIT 2026 TEST BANK LATEST ACTUAL
EXAM 500 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+
A client is receiving ampicillin sodium (Omnipen) for a sinus infection. The
nurse should instruct the client to notify the healthcare provider immediately
if which symptom occurs?
A) Rash.
B) Nausea.
C) Headache.
D) Dizziness. - ANSWER-A.
Rash (A) is the most common adverse effect of all penicillins, indicating
an allergy to the medication which could result in anaphylactic shock,
a medical emergency. (B, C, and D) are common side effects of
penicillins that should subside after the body adjusts to the medication.
These would not require immediate medical care unless the symptoms
persist beyond the first few days or become extremely severe.
In evaluating the effects of lactulose (Cephulac), which outcome should
indicate that the drug is performing as intended?
A) An increase in urine output.
B) Two or three soft stools per day.
C) Watery, diarrhea stools.
D) Increased serum bilirubin. - ANSWER-B.
,2|Page
Lactulose is administered to reduce blood ammonia by excretion of
ammonia through the stool. Two to three stools a day indicate that
lactulose is performing as intended (B). (A) would be expected if the
patient received a diuretic. (C) would indicate an overdose of lactulose
and is not expected. Lactulose does not affect (D).
A client who has been taking levodopa PO TID to control the symptoms of
Parkinsons disease has a new prescription for sustained release
levodopa/carbidopa (sinemet 25/100 PO BID. The client took his levodopa
at 0800. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for
this client?
A. take the first dose of sinemet today, as soon as your prescription is filld
B. Since you already took your levodopa, wait until tomorrow to take the
sinemet
C. Take both drugs for the 1st week, then switch to taking only the sinemet.
D. You can begin taking the sinemet this evening, but do not take anymore
levodopa - ANSWER-D
Which method of medication administration provides the client with the
greatest first-pass effect?
A) Oral.
B) Sublingual.
C) Intravenous.
,3|Page
D) Subcutaneous. - ANSWER-A.
The first-pass effect is a pharmacokinetic phenomenon that is related
to the drug's metabolism in the liver. After oral (A) medications are
absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract, the drug is carried directly to
the liver via the hepatic portal circulation where hepatic inactivation
occurs and reduces the bioavailability of the drug. Alternative method
of administration, such as sublingual (B), IV (C), and subcutaneous (D)
routes, avoid this first-pass effect.
A client with hyperlipidemia recieves a prescription for niacin (niaspan).
which client teaching is most important for the nurse to provide
a. expected duration of flushing
b. symptoms of hyperglycemia
c. diets that minimize gi irritation
d. comfort measure for pruritis - ANSWER-A.
flushing of the face and neck, lasting up to an hour, is a frequent reason for
discontinuing niacin. inclusion of this effect in clietn teaching may promote
compliance in taking the med.
Which drug is used as a palliative treatment for a client with tumor-induced
spinal cord compression?
A) Morphine Sulfate (Duromorph).
B) Ibuprofen (Advil).
, 4|Page
C) Amitriptyline (Amitril).
D) Dexamethasone (Decadron). - ANSWER-D.
Dexamethasone (D) is a palliative treatment modality to manage
symptoms related to compression due to tumor growth. Morphine
sulphate (A) is an opioid analgesic used in oncology to manage severe
or intractable pain. Ibuprofen (B), a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug
(NSAID), provides relief for mild to moderate pain, suppression of
inflammation, and reduction of fever. Amitriptyline (C), a tricyclic
antidepressant, is often prescribed for pain related to neuropathic
origin and provides a reduction in opioid dosage.
A client is receiving methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 40 mg IV daily. The
nurse anticipates an increase in which laboratory value as the result of this
medication?
A) Serum glucose.
B) Serum calcium.
C) Red blood cells.
D) Serum potassium. - ANSWER-A.
Solu-Medrol is a corticosteroid with glucocorticoid and
mineralocorticoid actions. These effects can lead to hyperglycemia (A),
which is reflected as an increase in the serum glucose value. The client
taking Solu-Medrol is at risk for hypocalcemia (B) and hypokalemia (D),
which result in a decrease, not an increase, in the serum calcium and
PHARMACOLOGY HESI RN EXIT 2026 TEST BANK LATEST ACTUAL
EXAM 500 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+
A client is receiving ampicillin sodium (Omnipen) for a sinus infection. The
nurse should instruct the client to notify the healthcare provider immediately
if which symptom occurs?
A) Rash.
B) Nausea.
C) Headache.
D) Dizziness. - ANSWER-A.
Rash (A) is the most common adverse effect of all penicillins, indicating
an allergy to the medication which could result in anaphylactic shock,
a medical emergency. (B, C, and D) are common side effects of
penicillins that should subside after the body adjusts to the medication.
These would not require immediate medical care unless the symptoms
persist beyond the first few days or become extremely severe.
In evaluating the effects of lactulose (Cephulac), which outcome should
indicate that the drug is performing as intended?
A) An increase in urine output.
B) Two or three soft stools per day.
C) Watery, diarrhea stools.
D) Increased serum bilirubin. - ANSWER-B.
,2|Page
Lactulose is administered to reduce blood ammonia by excretion of
ammonia through the stool. Two to three stools a day indicate that
lactulose is performing as intended (B). (A) would be expected if the
patient received a diuretic. (C) would indicate an overdose of lactulose
and is not expected. Lactulose does not affect (D).
A client who has been taking levodopa PO TID to control the symptoms of
Parkinsons disease has a new prescription for sustained release
levodopa/carbidopa (sinemet 25/100 PO BID. The client took his levodopa
at 0800. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for
this client?
A. take the first dose of sinemet today, as soon as your prescription is filld
B. Since you already took your levodopa, wait until tomorrow to take the
sinemet
C. Take both drugs for the 1st week, then switch to taking only the sinemet.
D. You can begin taking the sinemet this evening, but do not take anymore
levodopa - ANSWER-D
Which method of medication administration provides the client with the
greatest first-pass effect?
A) Oral.
B) Sublingual.
C) Intravenous.
,3|Page
D) Subcutaneous. - ANSWER-A.
The first-pass effect is a pharmacokinetic phenomenon that is related
to the drug's metabolism in the liver. After oral (A) medications are
absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract, the drug is carried directly to
the liver via the hepatic portal circulation where hepatic inactivation
occurs and reduces the bioavailability of the drug. Alternative method
of administration, such as sublingual (B), IV (C), and subcutaneous (D)
routes, avoid this first-pass effect.
A client with hyperlipidemia recieves a prescription for niacin (niaspan).
which client teaching is most important for the nurse to provide
a. expected duration of flushing
b. symptoms of hyperglycemia
c. diets that minimize gi irritation
d. comfort measure for pruritis - ANSWER-A.
flushing of the face and neck, lasting up to an hour, is a frequent reason for
discontinuing niacin. inclusion of this effect in clietn teaching may promote
compliance in taking the med.
Which drug is used as a palliative treatment for a client with tumor-induced
spinal cord compression?
A) Morphine Sulfate (Duromorph).
B) Ibuprofen (Advil).
, 4|Page
C) Amitriptyline (Amitril).
D) Dexamethasone (Decadron). - ANSWER-D.
Dexamethasone (D) is a palliative treatment modality to manage
symptoms related to compression due to tumor growth. Morphine
sulphate (A) is an opioid analgesic used in oncology to manage severe
or intractable pain. Ibuprofen (B), a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug
(NSAID), provides relief for mild to moderate pain, suppression of
inflammation, and reduction of fever. Amitriptyline (C), a tricyclic
antidepressant, is often prescribed for pain related to neuropathic
origin and provides a reduction in opioid dosage.
A client is receiving methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 40 mg IV daily. The
nurse anticipates an increase in which laboratory value as the result of this
medication?
A) Serum glucose.
B) Serum calcium.
C) Red blood cells.
D) Serum potassium. - ANSWER-A.
Solu-Medrol is a corticosteroid with glucocorticoid and
mineralocorticoid actions. These effects can lead to hyperglycemia (A),
which is reflected as an increase in the serum glucose value. The client
taking Solu-Medrol is at risk for hypocalcemia (B) and hypokalemia (D),
which result in a decrease, not an increase, in the serum calcium and
