ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored
Exam: Comprehensive Topic Test
|||questions and answers with
rationales/graded A+/2026
update/100% correct /instant
download
Total Questions: 85
Instructions: Select the best answer. Correct answers are highlighted in bold.
Rationales are provided below each question.
Section 1: Antepartum – Prenatal Care & Fetal Development
1. A nurse is teaching a client about physiological changes during pregnancy.
Which finding is considered an expected adaptation?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Increased blood pressure in the second trimester
C. Increased tidal volume
D. Decreased glomerular filtration rate
Rationale: Tidal volume increases by 30–40% due to progesterone, aiding gas
exchange. Heart rate increases, BP slightly decreases in second trimester, and GFR
increases.
2. A client at 36 weeks gestation reports contractions every 10 minutes, no
cervical change. The nurse identifies this as:
A. Preterm labor
B. Braxton-Hicks contractions
C. Placental abruption
D. Rupture of membranes
,Rationale: Braxton-Hicks are irregular, do not cause cervical change, and decrease
with activity. Preterm labor causes cervical change.
3. A nurse is reviewing prenatal laboratory results. Which Rubella titer
indicates immunity?
A. <1:8
B. 1:16 or greater
C. 1:4
D. Negative
Rationale: Rubella titer ≥1:16 (or ≥10 IU/mL) indicates immunity. Low titers
require vaccination postpartum.
4. A client asks about the purpose of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening. The
nurse explains it screens for:
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Neural tube defects
C. Placenta previa
D. Rh incompatibility
Rationale: AFP at 15–20 weeks detects neural tube defects (elevated) or trisomies
(low). It does not screen for diabetes or previa.
5. A nurse assesses a client with hyperemesis gravidarum. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
A. Weight loss of 2 kg
B. Ketones in urine
C. Nausea after eating crackers
D. Fatigue
Rationale: Ketones indicate dehydration and starvation, requiring IV fluids and
antiemetics. Weight loss is expected but ketones are more critical.
6. A client with gestational diabetes is having an ultrasound. The nurse expects
which fetal finding?
A. Microsomia
B. Macrosomia
C. Oligohydramnios
D. Intrauterine growth restriction
, Rationale: Hyperglycemia causes fetal hyperinsulinemia, leading to macrosomia
(large body). Polyhydramnios is also common.
7. A nurse teaches a client about Group B Streptococcus (GBS) testing. When
is it typically performed?
A. 24–28 weeks
B. 35–37 weeks
C. 12–14 weeks
D. 40 weeks
Rationale: GBS screen at 35–37 weeks to guide intrapartum antibiotic
prophylaxis. Results valid for 5 weeks.
8. A nurse suspects placental abruption in a client with vaginal bleeding.
Which risk factor is most associated?
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Maternal cocaine use
C. Placenta previa
D. Multiparity
Rationale: Cocaine use causes vasoconstriction and abruptio placentae. Previa
presents with painless bleeding.
9. A nurse reviews a nonstress test (NST). A reactive result requires:
A. One acceleration in 20 minutes
B. Two accelerations of 15 bpm for 15 seconds in 20 minutes
C. Late decelerations
D. Variable decelerations
Rationale: Reactive NST: ≥2 accelerations (15x15) in 20 min after 32 weeks.
Indicates fetal well-being.
10. A client at 28 weeks with Rh-negative blood and an indirect Coombs test
negative receives RhoGAM. When is the next dose indicated?
A. 32 weeks
B. Within 72 hours after delivery of an Rh-positive newborn
C. 36 weeks
D. Only if bleeding occurs
Rationale: RhoGAM given at 28 weeks and within 72 hours postpartum if
newborn is Rh-positive. Also after any sensitizing event.
Exam: Comprehensive Topic Test
|||questions and answers with
rationales/graded A+/2026
update/100% correct /instant
download
Total Questions: 85
Instructions: Select the best answer. Correct answers are highlighted in bold.
Rationales are provided below each question.
Section 1: Antepartum – Prenatal Care & Fetal Development
1. A nurse is teaching a client about physiological changes during pregnancy.
Which finding is considered an expected adaptation?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Increased blood pressure in the second trimester
C. Increased tidal volume
D. Decreased glomerular filtration rate
Rationale: Tidal volume increases by 30–40% due to progesterone, aiding gas
exchange. Heart rate increases, BP slightly decreases in second trimester, and GFR
increases.
2. A client at 36 weeks gestation reports contractions every 10 minutes, no
cervical change. The nurse identifies this as:
A. Preterm labor
B. Braxton-Hicks contractions
C. Placental abruption
D. Rupture of membranes
,Rationale: Braxton-Hicks are irregular, do not cause cervical change, and decrease
with activity. Preterm labor causes cervical change.
3. A nurse is reviewing prenatal laboratory results. Which Rubella titer
indicates immunity?
A. <1:8
B. 1:16 or greater
C. 1:4
D. Negative
Rationale: Rubella titer ≥1:16 (or ≥10 IU/mL) indicates immunity. Low titers
require vaccination postpartum.
4. A client asks about the purpose of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening. The
nurse explains it screens for:
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Neural tube defects
C. Placenta previa
D. Rh incompatibility
Rationale: AFP at 15–20 weeks detects neural tube defects (elevated) or trisomies
(low). It does not screen for diabetes or previa.
5. A nurse assesses a client with hyperemesis gravidarum. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
A. Weight loss of 2 kg
B. Ketones in urine
C. Nausea after eating crackers
D. Fatigue
Rationale: Ketones indicate dehydration and starvation, requiring IV fluids and
antiemetics. Weight loss is expected but ketones are more critical.
6. A client with gestational diabetes is having an ultrasound. The nurse expects
which fetal finding?
A. Microsomia
B. Macrosomia
C. Oligohydramnios
D. Intrauterine growth restriction
, Rationale: Hyperglycemia causes fetal hyperinsulinemia, leading to macrosomia
(large body). Polyhydramnios is also common.
7. A nurse teaches a client about Group B Streptococcus (GBS) testing. When
is it typically performed?
A. 24–28 weeks
B. 35–37 weeks
C. 12–14 weeks
D. 40 weeks
Rationale: GBS screen at 35–37 weeks to guide intrapartum antibiotic
prophylaxis. Results valid for 5 weeks.
8. A nurse suspects placental abruption in a client with vaginal bleeding.
Which risk factor is most associated?
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Maternal cocaine use
C. Placenta previa
D. Multiparity
Rationale: Cocaine use causes vasoconstriction and abruptio placentae. Previa
presents with painless bleeding.
9. A nurse reviews a nonstress test (NST). A reactive result requires:
A. One acceleration in 20 minutes
B. Two accelerations of 15 bpm for 15 seconds in 20 minutes
C. Late decelerations
D. Variable decelerations
Rationale: Reactive NST: ≥2 accelerations (15x15) in 20 min after 32 weeks.
Indicates fetal well-being.
10. A client at 28 weeks with Rh-negative blood and an indirect Coombs test
negative receives RhoGAM. When is the next dose indicated?
A. 32 weeks
B. Within 72 hours after delivery of an Rh-positive newborn
C. 36 weeks
D. Only if bleeding occurs
Rationale: RhoGAM given at 28 weeks and within 72 hours postpartum if
newborn is Rh-positive. Also after any sensitizing event.
