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PRN1500 — Maternal & Child Nursing Exam 2026/2027 | Practice Questions & Study Guide
PRN1500 — MATERNAL & CHILD
NURSING EXAM
2026/2027
75 Questions with Correct Answers & Rationales
Questions, Answers & Rationales | Already Graded A+ | 100% Verified
Maternal-Child Nursing Practice: Obstetrics & Pediatrics
Key Domains: Antepartum Assessment & Fetal Development | Intrapartum Management & Labor Stages
Fetal Heart Rate Monitoring & Interpretation | Postpartum Care & Maternal Recovery
Newborn Assessment & Stabilization | Pediatric Growth & Development Milestones
Common Pediatric Illnesses | Pediatric Pharmacology & Weight-Based Dosage
Immunization Schedules & Preventive Care | Family-Centered Care
High-Risk OB & Pediatric Emergency Recognition | Cultural Competence & Health Equity
Legal/Ethical Considerations | NCLEX-RN Prioritization & Test-Taking Strategies
1
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PRN1500 — Maternal & Child Nursing Exam 2026/2027 | Practice Questions & Study Guide
EXAM INSTRUCTIONS
Total Questions: 75 Multiple-Choice Questions (4 options each: A, B, C, D)
Format: Single best answer per question; select the most correct option
Correct Answers: Displayed in bold teal/cyan within each question for immediate reference
Rationales: Each answer includes an evidence-based rationale aligned with ATI OB-PEDS RN Content
Mastery Series, NCSBN NCLEX-RN test plans, AWHONN/AAP standards, ACOG guidelines, and current
clinical practice guidelines (CDC Immunization Schedules, AAP Red Book)
Clinical Judgment: Questions integrate ABCs priority framework, Maslow's hierarchy of needs, nursing
process (ADPIE), SBAR communication, and Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) clinical judgment concepts
Alignment: PRN1500 Maternal & Child Nursing course outcomes, clinical rotation competency standards,
and NCLEX-RN licensure preparation
Section I II III IV V VI VII VIII IX X XI XII XIII
Points 6 7 6 7 7 7 6 6 6 6 5 3 3
Score
Total: 75 Questions | Grade: _________ / 75
Section I: Antepartum Assessment & Fetal Development
1. A primigravida at 10 weeks' gestation has a hemoglobin level of 10.8 g/dL. The nurse should:
A. Recommend iron supplementation immediately
B. Document the finding as a normal physiological change
C. Prepare the client for a blood transfusion
D. Advise the client to restrict dietary iron intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During pregnancy, maternal blood volume expands by 30-50%, leading to hemodilution and a
physiological decrease in hemoglobin. A hemoglobin of 10.8 g/dL at 10 weeks is within normal limits for pregnancy
(ACOG defines anemia as Hb <11.0 g/dL in the first trimester, <10.5 g/dL in the second trimester, and <11.0 g/dL in
the third trimester). Iron supplementation is typically started if Hb falls below these thresholds. Blood transfusion is
not indicated. Restricting iron is contraindicated during pregnancy.
2. A pregnant client at 24 weeks' gestation asks the nurse when she should begin counting fetal movements.
The nurse's best response is:
A. Fetal movement counting is not necessary until the third trimester
B. Begin counting fetal movements (kick counts) at 28 weeks, aiming for 10 movements in 2 hours
C. You should count movements throughout the entire pregnancy starting now
D. Kick counts are only needed if you have a high-risk pregnancy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: ACOG recommends initiating daily fetal movement counting (kick counts) at 28 weeks' gestation. The
most common method: count fetal movements while lying on the left side; 10 movements within 2 hours is reassuring.
If fewer than 10 movements are felt in 2 hours, the client should contact the provider. Before 28 weeks, fetal
2
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PRN1500 — Maternal & Child Nursing Exam 2026/2027 | Practice Questions & Study Guide
movements may be intermittent and less predictable, making formal counting impractical. Kick counts are
recommended for all pregnancies, not just high-risk ones.
3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a pregnant client at 16 weeks' gestation. The client's blood
type is O negative, and the indirect Coombs test is negative. The nurse understands that the client should
receive:
A. Rho(D) immune globulin at this visit
B. Rho(D) immune globulin at 28 weeks' gestation
C. Rho(D) immune globulin within 72 hours of delivery only
D. No Rho(D) immune globulin is needed
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For Rh-negative (O negative) pregnant clients with a negative indirect Coombs test (no sensitization),
ACOG recommends Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) at 28 weeks' gestation (standard dose) and within 72 hours
after delivery if the infant is Rh-positive. Additional doses may be needed for procedures (amniocentesis, CVS,
external version) or vaginal bleeding after 12 weeks. At 16 weeks with a negative antibody screen, prophylaxis is not
yet needed. Failure to administer RhoGAM can lead to Rh isoimmunization in future pregnancies.
4. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client and notes Chadwick's sign. This finding is described as:
A. Softening of the cervix
B. Bluish-purple discoloration of the cervix and vaginal walls
C. Enlargement of the uterus
D. Fetal movement felt by the examiner
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chadwick's sign is a probable sign of pregnancy characterized by a bluish-purple discoloration of the
cervix and vaginal mucosa, caused by increased vascularity and congestion from hormonal changes. Goodell's sign
is softening of the cervix. Hegar's sign is softening of the lower uterine segment. Ballottement is the examiner's ability
to tap the fetus through the cervix, which rebounds. Quickening is the maternal perception of fetal movement.
5. A pregnant client at 30 weeks' gestation is scheduled for a biophysical profile (BPP). Which components
are included in a BPP assessment?
A. Fetal heart rate only, fundal height, and maternal blood pressure
B. Nonstress test, fetal breathing, fetal movements, fetal tone, and amniotic fluid volume
C. Maternal weight gain, urine protein, and blood glucose levels
D. Cervical dilation, effacement, and station
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The biophysical profile (BPP) includes five components, each scored 0 or 2 points (maximum 10): (1)
Nonstress test (NST) - reactive/non-reactive; (2) Fetal breathing movements (at least 1 episode of 30 seconds in 30
minutes); (3) Fetal body movements (at least 3 discrete limb or body movements in 30 minutes); (4) Fetal tone (at
least 1 episode of active extension/flexion of a limb); (5) Amniotic fluid volume (single deepest vertical pocket >= 2
cm). A score of 8-10 is normal, 6 is equivocal, and 4 or less is abnormal.
6. A nurse is providing genetic counseling to a couple with a family history of sickle cell disease. Both
partners are carriers (sickle cell trait). What is the chance their child will have sickle cell disease?
A. 0% B. 25%
C. 50% D. 75%
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Using an autosomal recessive Punnett square: when both parents are carriers (genotype AS), each child
has a 25% chance of being affected (SS, sickle cell disease), a 50% chance of being a carrier (AS, sickle cell trait),
3
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PRN1500 — Maternal & Child Nursing Exam 2026/2027 | Practice Questions & Study Guide
PRN1500 — MATERNAL & CHILD
NURSING EXAM
2026/2027
75 Questions with Correct Answers & Rationales
Questions, Answers & Rationales | Already Graded A+ | 100% Verified
Maternal-Child Nursing Practice: Obstetrics & Pediatrics
Key Domains: Antepartum Assessment & Fetal Development | Intrapartum Management & Labor Stages
Fetal Heart Rate Monitoring & Interpretation | Postpartum Care & Maternal Recovery
Newborn Assessment & Stabilization | Pediatric Growth & Development Milestones
Common Pediatric Illnesses | Pediatric Pharmacology & Weight-Based Dosage
Immunization Schedules & Preventive Care | Family-Centered Care
High-Risk OB & Pediatric Emergency Recognition | Cultural Competence & Health Equity
Legal/Ethical Considerations | NCLEX-RN Prioritization & Test-Taking Strategies
1
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PRN1500 — Maternal & Child Nursing Exam 2026/2027 | Practice Questions & Study Guide
EXAM INSTRUCTIONS
Total Questions: 75 Multiple-Choice Questions (4 options each: A, B, C, D)
Format: Single best answer per question; select the most correct option
Correct Answers: Displayed in bold teal/cyan within each question for immediate reference
Rationales: Each answer includes an evidence-based rationale aligned with ATI OB-PEDS RN Content
Mastery Series, NCSBN NCLEX-RN test plans, AWHONN/AAP standards, ACOG guidelines, and current
clinical practice guidelines (CDC Immunization Schedules, AAP Red Book)
Clinical Judgment: Questions integrate ABCs priority framework, Maslow's hierarchy of needs, nursing
process (ADPIE), SBAR communication, and Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) clinical judgment concepts
Alignment: PRN1500 Maternal & Child Nursing course outcomes, clinical rotation competency standards,
and NCLEX-RN licensure preparation
Section I II III IV V VI VII VIII IX X XI XII XIII
Points 6 7 6 7 7 7 6 6 6 6 5 3 3
Score
Total: 75 Questions | Grade: _________ / 75
Section I: Antepartum Assessment & Fetal Development
1. A primigravida at 10 weeks' gestation has a hemoglobin level of 10.8 g/dL. The nurse should:
A. Recommend iron supplementation immediately
B. Document the finding as a normal physiological change
C. Prepare the client for a blood transfusion
D. Advise the client to restrict dietary iron intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During pregnancy, maternal blood volume expands by 30-50%, leading to hemodilution and a
physiological decrease in hemoglobin. A hemoglobin of 10.8 g/dL at 10 weeks is within normal limits for pregnancy
(ACOG defines anemia as Hb <11.0 g/dL in the first trimester, <10.5 g/dL in the second trimester, and <11.0 g/dL in
the third trimester). Iron supplementation is typically started if Hb falls below these thresholds. Blood transfusion is
not indicated. Restricting iron is contraindicated during pregnancy.
2. A pregnant client at 24 weeks' gestation asks the nurse when she should begin counting fetal movements.
The nurse's best response is:
A. Fetal movement counting is not necessary until the third trimester
B. Begin counting fetal movements (kick counts) at 28 weeks, aiming for 10 movements in 2 hours
C. You should count movements throughout the entire pregnancy starting now
D. Kick counts are only needed if you have a high-risk pregnancy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: ACOG recommends initiating daily fetal movement counting (kick counts) at 28 weeks' gestation. The
most common method: count fetal movements while lying on the left side; 10 movements within 2 hours is reassuring.
If fewer than 10 movements are felt in 2 hours, the client should contact the provider. Before 28 weeks, fetal
2
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PRN1500 — Maternal & Child Nursing Exam 2026/2027 | Practice Questions & Study Guide
movements may be intermittent and less predictable, making formal counting impractical. Kick counts are
recommended for all pregnancies, not just high-risk ones.
3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a pregnant client at 16 weeks' gestation. The client's blood
type is O negative, and the indirect Coombs test is negative. The nurse understands that the client should
receive:
A. Rho(D) immune globulin at this visit
B. Rho(D) immune globulin at 28 weeks' gestation
C. Rho(D) immune globulin within 72 hours of delivery only
D. No Rho(D) immune globulin is needed
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For Rh-negative (O negative) pregnant clients with a negative indirect Coombs test (no sensitization),
ACOG recommends Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) at 28 weeks' gestation (standard dose) and within 72 hours
after delivery if the infant is Rh-positive. Additional doses may be needed for procedures (amniocentesis, CVS,
external version) or vaginal bleeding after 12 weeks. At 16 weeks with a negative antibody screen, prophylaxis is not
yet needed. Failure to administer RhoGAM can lead to Rh isoimmunization in future pregnancies.
4. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client and notes Chadwick's sign. This finding is described as:
A. Softening of the cervix
B. Bluish-purple discoloration of the cervix and vaginal walls
C. Enlargement of the uterus
D. Fetal movement felt by the examiner
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chadwick's sign is a probable sign of pregnancy characterized by a bluish-purple discoloration of the
cervix and vaginal mucosa, caused by increased vascularity and congestion from hormonal changes. Goodell's sign
is softening of the cervix. Hegar's sign is softening of the lower uterine segment. Ballottement is the examiner's ability
to tap the fetus through the cervix, which rebounds. Quickening is the maternal perception of fetal movement.
5. A pregnant client at 30 weeks' gestation is scheduled for a biophysical profile (BPP). Which components
are included in a BPP assessment?
A. Fetal heart rate only, fundal height, and maternal blood pressure
B. Nonstress test, fetal breathing, fetal movements, fetal tone, and amniotic fluid volume
C. Maternal weight gain, urine protein, and blood glucose levels
D. Cervical dilation, effacement, and station
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The biophysical profile (BPP) includes five components, each scored 0 or 2 points (maximum 10): (1)
Nonstress test (NST) - reactive/non-reactive; (2) Fetal breathing movements (at least 1 episode of 30 seconds in 30
minutes); (3) Fetal body movements (at least 3 discrete limb or body movements in 30 minutes); (4) Fetal tone (at
least 1 episode of active extension/flexion of a limb); (5) Amniotic fluid volume (single deepest vertical pocket >= 2
cm). A score of 8-10 is normal, 6 is equivocal, and 4 or less is abnormal.
6. A nurse is providing genetic counseling to a couple with a family history of sickle cell disease. Both
partners are carriers (sickle cell trait). What is the chance their child will have sickle cell disease?
A. 0% B. 25%
C. 50% D. 75%
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Using an autosomal recessive Punnett square: when both parents are carriers (genotype AS), each child
has a 25% chance of being affected (SS, sickle cell disease), a 50% chance of being a carrier (AS, sickle cell trait),
3
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