ATI RN Fundamentals of Nursing NGN 2025/2026 Updated Exam Preparation
Package | Ultimate Proctored Assessment Review Featuring High-Yield Nursing
Fundamentals Concepts, Clinical Judgment Case Studies, Critical Thinking
Questions, Nursing Process, Patient Safety, Basic Care Skills, Documentation,
Therapeutic Communication, Leadership Principles & Explained Rationales
Safety & Infection Control
1. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take to maintain sterile technique?
• A. Place the sterile field at the edge of the bed
• B. Open the sterile kit away from the body
• C. Keep the sterile field at least 6 feet away from the client
• D. Set up the sterile field before applying sterile gloves
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The sterile field should be set up before applying sterile gloves to
prevent contamination. Placing the field at the edge of the bed (A) increases
contamination risk. Opening the kit away from the body (B) is correct for
maintaining sterility, but setting up the field before gloving is the priority. Keeping
the field 6 feet away (C) is incorrect; sterile fields should be kept at least 1 foot
from the edge of the table and away from traffic.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a Clostridium difficile infection. Which of
the following infection control precautions should the nurse implement?
• A. Droplet precautions
• B. Airborne precautions
• C. Contact precautions
• D. Standard precautions only
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: C. difficile requires contact precautions because it is transmitted via
the fecal-oral route and through contaminated surfaces. Droplet precautions (A)
are for organisms like influenza. Airborne precautions (B) are for tuberculosis and
measles. Standard precautions alone (D) are insufficient.
3. A nurse is preparing to perform hand hygiene. Which of the following is the
correct technique for using an alcohol-based hand rub?
• A. Apply rub to dry hands and rub until dry
• B. Apply rub to hands and rinse with warm water
• C. Apply rub to wet hands and rub for 10 seconds
• D. Apply rub and wash with soap and water afterward
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Alcohol-based hand rub should be applied to dry hands and rubbed
until completely dry. Water (B, C) dilutes the alcohol and reduces effectiveness.
Soap and water after alcohol rub (D) is unnecessary and can irritate the skin.
4. A nurse is applying restraints to a client who is agitated. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take?
• A. Tie restraints to the side rails of the bed
• B. Secure restraints with a quick-release knot
• C. Apply restraints tightly to prevent movement
• D. Remove restraints every 4 hours for range of motion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Restraints must be secured with a quick-release knot for safety and
easy removal in an emergency. Tying to side rails (A) is unsafe because side rails
can move. Restraints should be applied snugly but not tightly enough to impair
circulation (C). Restraints should be removed every 2 hours (not 4) for ROM and
skin assessment (D).
,5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about fire safety in the home. Which
of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the
teaching?
• A. "I should use a Class A fire extinguisher for a grease fire"
• B. "I should stop, drop, and roll if my clothing catches fire"
• C. "I should leave the house and then call 911"
• D. "I should open windows to let smoke out"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Stop, drop, and roll is the correct response if clothing catches fire.
Class A extinguishers are for ordinary combustibles, not grease fires (Class B) (A).
Leaving the house before calling 911 (C) is incorrect; call 911 first if possible.
Opening windows (D) can feed the fire with oxygen.
Vital Signs & Assessment
6. A nurse is assessing a client's blood pressure. Which of the following actions
is correct?
• A. Place the client's arm above the level of the heart
• B. Use a cuff that covers 40% of the upper arm circumference
• C. Palpate the brachial artery before inflating the cuff
• D. Deflate the cuff at a rate of 5 to 10 mmHg per second
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The brachial artery should be palpated to ensure proper placement of
the stethoscope. The arm should be at heart level, not above (A). The cuff should
cover 80% (not 40%) of the arm circumference (B). The cuff should be deflated at
2 to 3 mmHg per second, not 5 to 10 (D).
, 7. A nurse is assessing a client's respiratory rate. Which of the following findings
should the nurse report to the provider?
• A. Respiratory rate of 14 breaths per minute
• B. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute
• C. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
• D. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A normal adult respiratory rate is 12 to 20 breaths per minute. A rate
of 26 is tachypneic and should be reported. Rates of 14, 18, and 22 are within or
near normal limits (though 22 is slightly elevated, 26 is more concerning).
8. A nurse is measuring a client's temperature using a tympanic thermometer.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
• A. Pull the pinna down and back for an adult
• B. Pull the pinna up and back for an adult
• C. Pull the pinna down and back for a child
• D. Pull the pinna straight back for an infant
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For an adult, the pinna should be pulled up and back to straighten the
ear canal. For children and infants, the pinna should be pulled down and back (C).
Straight back (D) is not correct for any age.
9. A nurse is assessing a client's pulse. Which of the following sites should the
nurse use to assess the apical pulse?
• A. Radial artery
• B. Brachial artery
Package | Ultimate Proctored Assessment Review Featuring High-Yield Nursing
Fundamentals Concepts, Clinical Judgment Case Studies, Critical Thinking
Questions, Nursing Process, Patient Safety, Basic Care Skills, Documentation,
Therapeutic Communication, Leadership Principles & Explained Rationales
Safety & Infection Control
1. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take to maintain sterile technique?
• A. Place the sterile field at the edge of the bed
• B. Open the sterile kit away from the body
• C. Keep the sterile field at least 6 feet away from the client
• D. Set up the sterile field before applying sterile gloves
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The sterile field should be set up before applying sterile gloves to
prevent contamination. Placing the field at the edge of the bed (A) increases
contamination risk. Opening the kit away from the body (B) is correct for
maintaining sterility, but setting up the field before gloving is the priority. Keeping
the field 6 feet away (C) is incorrect; sterile fields should be kept at least 1 foot
from the edge of the table and away from traffic.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a Clostridium difficile infection. Which of
the following infection control precautions should the nurse implement?
• A. Droplet precautions
• B. Airborne precautions
• C. Contact precautions
• D. Standard precautions only
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: C. difficile requires contact precautions because it is transmitted via
the fecal-oral route and through contaminated surfaces. Droplet precautions (A)
are for organisms like influenza. Airborne precautions (B) are for tuberculosis and
measles. Standard precautions alone (D) are insufficient.
3. A nurse is preparing to perform hand hygiene. Which of the following is the
correct technique for using an alcohol-based hand rub?
• A. Apply rub to dry hands and rub until dry
• B. Apply rub to hands and rinse with warm water
• C. Apply rub to wet hands and rub for 10 seconds
• D. Apply rub and wash with soap and water afterward
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Alcohol-based hand rub should be applied to dry hands and rubbed
until completely dry. Water (B, C) dilutes the alcohol and reduces effectiveness.
Soap and water after alcohol rub (D) is unnecessary and can irritate the skin.
4. A nurse is applying restraints to a client who is agitated. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take?
• A. Tie restraints to the side rails of the bed
• B. Secure restraints with a quick-release knot
• C. Apply restraints tightly to prevent movement
• D. Remove restraints every 4 hours for range of motion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Restraints must be secured with a quick-release knot for safety and
easy removal in an emergency. Tying to side rails (A) is unsafe because side rails
can move. Restraints should be applied snugly but not tightly enough to impair
circulation (C). Restraints should be removed every 2 hours (not 4) for ROM and
skin assessment (D).
,5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about fire safety in the home. Which
of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the
teaching?
• A. "I should use a Class A fire extinguisher for a grease fire"
• B. "I should stop, drop, and roll if my clothing catches fire"
• C. "I should leave the house and then call 911"
• D. "I should open windows to let smoke out"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Stop, drop, and roll is the correct response if clothing catches fire.
Class A extinguishers are for ordinary combustibles, not grease fires (Class B) (A).
Leaving the house before calling 911 (C) is incorrect; call 911 first if possible.
Opening windows (D) can feed the fire with oxygen.
Vital Signs & Assessment
6. A nurse is assessing a client's blood pressure. Which of the following actions
is correct?
• A. Place the client's arm above the level of the heart
• B. Use a cuff that covers 40% of the upper arm circumference
• C. Palpate the brachial artery before inflating the cuff
• D. Deflate the cuff at a rate of 5 to 10 mmHg per second
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The brachial artery should be palpated to ensure proper placement of
the stethoscope. The arm should be at heart level, not above (A). The cuff should
cover 80% (not 40%) of the arm circumference (B). The cuff should be deflated at
2 to 3 mmHg per second, not 5 to 10 (D).
, 7. A nurse is assessing a client's respiratory rate. Which of the following findings
should the nurse report to the provider?
• A. Respiratory rate of 14 breaths per minute
• B. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute
• C. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
• D. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A normal adult respiratory rate is 12 to 20 breaths per minute. A rate
of 26 is tachypneic and should be reported. Rates of 14, 18, and 22 are within or
near normal limits (though 22 is slightly elevated, 26 is more concerning).
8. A nurse is measuring a client's temperature using a tympanic thermometer.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
• A. Pull the pinna down and back for an adult
• B. Pull the pinna up and back for an adult
• C. Pull the pinna down and back for a child
• D. Pull the pinna straight back for an infant
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For an adult, the pinna should be pulled up and back to straighten the
ear canal. For children and infants, the pinna should be pulled down and back (C).
Straight back (D) is not correct for any age.
9. A nurse is assessing a client's pulse. Which of the following sites should the
nurse use to assess the apical pulse?
• A. Radial artery
• B. Brachial artery
