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NSG533 / NSG 533 Exam 1 (Latest 2026 / 2027): Advanced Pharmacology | Questions and Verified Answers with Rationales | 100% Correct | Grade A - Wilkes

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Exam 1: NSG533 / NSG 533 (Latest 2024 / 2025 Update) Advanced Pharmacology Exam| Questions and Verified Answers with Rationales | 100% Correct | Grade A - Wilkes Q: In order to determine how much T4 replacement a patient needs to re-establish a euthyroid state, the NP considers: 1. the TSH value 2. the patient's T4 3. the patient's body weight 4. the patient's gender Answer: 3. the patient's body weight Replacement is based on body weight and is usually calculated in kg. The patients weight is calculated in kg and multplied by 1.6 to determine the replacement needed in one day. This is the amount that should be prescribed provided the patient is otherwise healthy, is less than 50 y/o, and has no evidence of underlying cardiac disease. Rx pearl: start low and go slow, then titrate slowly up; if you calculate dose and start that right away, you will send the heart into afib (that never goes away) Q: A patient has been diagnosed today with T2DM. A criterion for diagnosis is: 1. An abnormal blood glucose 2. Proteinuria 3. A fasting glucose or equal to 126 and confirmed on a previous day 4. An abnormal postprandial glucose Answer: 3. A fasting glucose or equal to 126 and confirmed on a previous day T2DM is dx after a random fasting glucose greater than or equal to 126 mg/dL and confirmed on a subsequent day. Other diagnostic criteria include a random glucose 200mg/dL with polyuria, polydipsia, or polyphagia; or an A1C greater than or equal to 6.5% (and confirmed on a subsequent day). A glucose tolerance test may also be used for diagnosis, but this is usually reserved for pregnant women. Q: The most appropriate screen for diabetic nephropathy is: 1. Creatinine clearance and eGFR 2. Urinary albumin to creatinine ratio and eGFR 3. microalbuminuria 4. serum creatinine Answer: 2. Urinary albumin to creatinine ratio and eGFR At least once per year in all patients who have T2DM. Q: A patient has 2 fasting glucose values (121mg/dL and 126mg/dL) that were measured on 2 seperate days in the same week. This patient : 1. has normal values 2. has impaired fasting glucose 3. has T2DM 4. should have an A1C performed Answer: 4. should have an A1C performed This patient has elevated glucose readings. One indicates impaired fasting glucose and the other T2DM. Further testing should be done. A1c is a good choice to confirm dx of T2DM (6.5%) Q: A diabetic patient with albuminuria has been placed on an ACEI. How soon can the antiproteinuric affect of the ACEI be realized for this patient? 1. 6-8 weeks 2. 3 months 3. 6 months 4. 3-5 years Answer: 1. 6-8 weeks The effect can be realized as early as 6-8 weeks after starting an ACEI or ARB. Monitor the patient's serum Cr and K levels with dose changes because both can increase to unacceptable levels when drugs affecting the RAAS are used. Q: Mr. Smith, an overweight 48 y/o with undiagnosed T2DM presents to your clinic. Which of these symptoms is not associated with T2DM. 1. fatigue 2. constipation 3. athlete's foot 4. impetigo Answer: 2. constipation Q: Hyperthyroidism may affect the blood pressure 1. by producing an increase in systolic/diastolic readings 2. by producing a decrease in diastolic 3. when the heart rate is increased 4. with unpredictable results Answer: 1. by producing an increase in systolic/diastolic readings A common effect of hyperthyroidism on BP is an increase. Hyperthyroidism is the most common endocrine cause of secondary HTN. Other endocrine causes of secondary HTN are pheochromocytoma, Cushings syndrom, and neuroblastoma. It is common to measure a resting HR of 100 in patients who have untreated hyperthyroidism. Q: When the serum fT4 falls: 1. TSH falls 2. TSH rises 3. There is no relationship between T4 and TSH 4. T3 falls Answer: 2. TSH rises Inverse relationship Q: What is the earliest detectable glycemic abnormality in a patient with T2DM? 1. Postprandial glucose elevation 2. Nighttime hyperglycemia 3. Fasting glucose elevation 4. Abnormal A1C Answer: 1. Postprandial glucose elevation The earliest glycemic abnormality is postprandial glucose elevation. Early in the pathogenesis of diabetes, glucose levels increase to abnormal after eating. Over the next few hours, if the patient does not eat, the glucose levels will fall to a normal range again. This can occur for months to years before glucose levels become consistently elevated and are not able to return to normal after eating despite long periods. Q: Which of the following would be expected to result in the greatest reduction in systolic BP in a middle aged man with HTN? a. initiating a DASH eating plan b. starting an exercise regimen involving 100min/week of dynamic resistance c. weight reduction of 4kg in an overweight individual d. limiting alcohol consumption to two drinks or less Answer: a. initiating a DASH eating plan Q: Enhanced intake of which of the following is recommended to decrease BP? Exam 1: NSG533/ NSG 533 (Latest 2023/ 2024 Update) Advanced Pharmacology Exam| Questions and Verified Answers with Rationales| 100% Correct| Grade A Q: In order to determine how much T4 replacement a patient needs to re-establish a euthyroid state, the NP considers: 1. the TSH value 2. the patient's T4 3. the patient's body weight 4. the patient's gender Answer: 3. the patient's body weight Replacement is based on body weight and is usually calculated in kg. The patients weight is calculated in kg and multplied by 1.6 to determine the replacement needed in one day. This is the amount that should be prescribed provided the patient is otherwise healthy, is less than 50 y/o, and has no evidence of underlying cardiac disease. Rx pearl: start low and go slow, then titrate slowly up; if you calculate dose and start that right away, you will send the heart into afib (that never goes away) Q: A patient has been diagnosed today with T2DM. A criterion for diagnosis is: 1. An abnormal blood glucose 2. Proteinuria 3. A fasting glucose or equal to 126 and confirmed on a previous day 4. An abnormal postprandial glucose Answer: 3. A fasting glucose or equal to 126 and confirmed on a previous day T2DM is dx after a random fasting glucose greater than or equal to 126 mg/dL and confirmed on a subsequent day. Other diagnostic criteria include a random glucose 200mg/dL with polyuria, polydipsia, or polyphagia; or an A1C greater than or equal to 6.5% (and confirmed on a subsequent day). A glucose tolerance test may also be used for diagnosis, but this is usually reserved for pregnant women. Q: The most appropriate screen for diabetic nephropathy is: 1. Creatinine clearance and eGFR 2. Urinary albumin to creatinine ratio and eGFR 3. microalbuminuria 4. serum creatinine Answer: 2. Urinary albumin to creatinine ratio and eGFR At least once per year in all patients who have T2DM. Q: A patient has 2 fasting glucose values (121mg/dL and 126mg/dL) that were measured on 2 seperate days in the same week. This patient : 1. has normal values 2. has impaired fasting glucose 3. has T2DM 4. should have an A1C performed Answer: 4. should have an A1C performed This patient has elevated glucose readings. One indicates impaired fasting glucose and the other T2DM. Further testing should be done. A1c is a good choice to confirm dx of T2DM (6.5%) Q: A diabetic patient with albuminuria has been placed on an ACEI. How soon can the antiproteinuric affect of the ACEI be realized for this patient? 1. 6-8 weeks 2. 3 months 3. 6 months 4. 3-5 years Answer: 1. 6-8 weeks The effect can be realized as early as 6-8 weeks after starting an ACEI or ARB. Monitor the patient's serum Cr and K levels with dose changes because both can increase to unacceptable levels when drugs affecting the RAAS are used. Q: Mr. Smith, an overweight 48 y/o with undiagnosed T2DM presents to your clinic. Which of these symptoms is not associated with T2DM. 1. fatigue 2. constipation 3. athlete's foot 4. impetigo Answer: 2. constipation Q: Hyperthyroidism may affect the blood pressure 1. by producing an increase in systolic/diastolic readings 2. by producing a decrease in diastolic 3. when the heart rate is increased 4. with unpredictable results Answer: 1. by producing an increase in systolic/diastolic readings A common effect of hyperthyroidism on BP is an increase. Hyperthyroidism is the most common endocrine cause of secondary HTN. Other endocrine causes of secondary HTN are pheochromocytoma, Cushings syndrom, and neuroblastoma. It is common to measure a resting HR of 100 in patients who have untreated hyperthyroidism. Q: When the serum fT4 falls: 1. TSH falls 2. TSH rises 3. There is no relationship between T4 and TSH 4. T3 falls Answer: 2. TSH rises Inverse relationship Q: What is the earliest detectable glycemic abnormality in a patient with T2DM? 1. Postprandial glucose elevation 2. Nighttime hyperglycemia 3. Fasting glucose elevation 4. Abnormal A1C Answer: 1. Postprandial glucose elevation The earliest glycemic abnormality is postprandial glucose elevation. Early in the pathogenesis of diabetes, glucose levels increase to abnormal after eating. Over the next few hours, if the patient does not eat, the glucose levels will fall to a normal range again. This can occur for months to years before glucose levels become consistently elevated and are not able to return to normal after eating despite long periods. Q: Which of the following would be expected to result in the greatest reduction in systolic BP in a middle aged man with HTN? a. initiating a DASH eating plan b. starting an exercise regimen involving 100min/week of dynamic resistance c. weight reduction of 4kg in an overweight individual d. limiting alcohol consumption to two drinks or less Answer: a. initiating a DASH eating plan Q: Enhanced intake of which of the following is recommended to decrease BP?

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Wilkes University




O H TAP · 3 3 5 G S N
W
Passan School of Nursing
EST. 1933
UNITY AMIDST DIVERSITY




NSG 533 Exam 1 — Pathophysiology Foundations
C E L L I N J U RY, F LU I D & E L E CT R O LYT E S , AC I D - B A S E , R E N A L PAT H O P H YS I O LO G Y

INSTITUTION Wilkes University COURSE CODE NSG 533
PROGRAM Advanced Pathophysiology — EXAM Exam 1 — Comprehensive
Graduate Nursing Pathophysiology
EXAM TITLE NSG 533 Exam 1 — TOTAL QUESTIONS 100 Questions
Pathophysiology Foundations
COURSE TITLE Advanced Pathophysiology FORMAT Multiple Choice — Select the
Single Best Answer


EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS
▸ Select the single best answer for each question.
▸ Pathophysiology foundations, cell injury, necrosis, apoptosis, fluid/electrolyte balance, acid-base
disorders, and renal pathophysiology are all testable content.
▸ Correct answers and detailed pathophysiological rationales appear below each question.
▸ All content reflects NSG 533 Advanced Pathophysiology course objectives.

, SECTION I — PATHOPHYSIOLOGY: CELLULAR
Questions 1 – 100
FOUNDATIONS THROUGH RENAL DISEASE

1. The five essential components of pathophysiology are:
A. Diagnosis, treatment, prognosis, prevention, and rehabilitation
B. Etiology, epidemiology, pathogenesis, clinical manifestations, and outcomes
C. History, physical examination, laboratory tests, imaging, and consultation
D. Genetics, environment, lifestyle, nutrition, and immunity
CORRECT ANSWER B — Etiology, epidemiology, pathogenesis, clinical manifestations, and
outcomes
RATIONALE The five core components provide the framework for understanding any disease:
Etiology (cause — idiopathic/cryptogenic if unknown, iatrogenic if from medical
intervention), Epidemiology (incidence = new cases; prevalence = all cases),
Pathogenesis (mechanism of disease development), Clinical manifestations (signs
and symptoms), and Outcomes (results including recovery, chronicity, or death).
The NSG 533 emphasizes applying this framework to every disease studied.

,2. What are the four common mechanisms of cell injury and death?
A. Infection, inflammation, immune response, and neoplasm
B. ATP depletion, oxygen and oxygen-derived free radicals, intracellular calcium and loss of
calcium state, and defects in membrane permeability
C. Apoptosis, necrosis, autophagy, and senescence
D. Hypoxia, ischemia, infarction, and reperfusion
CORRECT ANSWER B — ATP depletion, free radicals, calcium dysregulation, and membrane
defects
RATIONALE The four fundamental mechanisms are: (1) ATP depletion (most common
stressor) — impairs Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase pump → cellular swelling, increased glycolysis
→ glycogen depletion, lactate accumulation, decreased pH; (2) Free radicals —
unstable compounds with unpaired electrons that damage membrane
phospholipids; (3) Intracellular calcium dysregulation — loss of calcium
homeostasis damages mitochondria and activates destructive enzymes; (4)
Membrane permeability defects — compromise cellular integrity. ATP is produced
via anaerobic glycolysis (2 ATP) and aerobic oxidative phosphorylation (36 ATP).

3. How many ATP does glycolysis yield?
A. 36 ATP
B. 2 ATP — glycolysis is the anaerobic phase of ATP production
C. 4 ATP
D. 0 ATP
CORRECT ANSWER B — 2 ATP; oxidative phosphorylation yields 36 ATP
RATIONALE Glycolysis (anaerobic) yields only 2 ATP per glucose. Oxidative phosphorylation
(aerobic) yields 36 ATP. When ATP depletion occurs, cells shift toward increased
anaerobic glycolysis — glycogen is depleted, lactate increases, intracellular pH
decreases, causing nuclear changes: pyknosis (clumping), karyorrhexis
(fragmentation), and karyolysis (dissolution).

, 4. Define apoptosis and list the three mechanisms.
A. Uncontrolled cell death with inflammation — necrosis, autophagy, and lysis
B. Programmed cell death not associated with inflammation — mitochondrial pathway,
death receptor pathway, and apoptosis-inducing factor (AIF)
C. Cell swelling and rupture — osmotic, chemical, and mechanical
D. Cell adaptation to stress — atrophy, hypertrophy, and hyperplasia
CORRECT ANSWER B — Programmed cell death without inflammation; three pathways:
mitochondrial, death receptor, AIF
RATIONALE Apoptosis is orderly, non-inflammatory cell death. Three mechanisms: (1)
Mitochondrial (intrinsic) — Bax blocks Bcl-2, releasing cytochrome c → Apaf-1 →
apoptosomes → caspase 9 → caspase cascade → phagocytosis; (2) Death
receptor (extrinsic) — FAS/TNF activated by ligands → caspase 8 → caspase
cascade; (3) AIF — released from mitochondria, migrates to nucleus, binds DNA,
triggers cell death. HPV and EBV can evade apoptosis.


5. What is the function of aldosterone?
A. Promote renal excretion of sodium and retention of potassium
B. Retain sodium and promote renal excretion of potassium — secreted from the adrenal
cortex in response to angiotensin II
C. Increase urine output and decrease blood pressure
D. Stimulate red blood cell production
CORRECT ANSWER B — Retain sodium, excrete potassium — secreted from adrenal cortex
RATIONALE Aldosterone (mineralocorticoid from adrenal cortex) is secreted in response to
angiotensin II. Primary functions: retain sodium (and water follows) and excrete
potassium. The RAAS cascade: low BP/perfusion/Na → renin from JG cells →
angiotensin I → ACE → angiotensin II → vasoconstriction + aldosterone + ADH.
The three sodium-regulating systems: RAAS (increase BP), Natriuretic Peptide
System (decrease BP), ADH System (water conservation).

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