Portage Learning A&P 2 Module 7 Exam 2026/2027
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Portage Learning A&P 2 Module 7
Exam 2026/2027
50 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Reproductive System Acid-Base Balance
Development & Genetics Integrative Physiology
Fluid & Electrolyte Balance
Portage Learning A&P 2 Module 7 Exam 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% Page 1 of 28
Portage Learning A&P 2 Module 7 Exam 2026/2027 COVER PAGE - 1
2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 of N
, SECTION 1 | Reproductive System | Q1-Q10 | Portage Learning A&P 2 Module 7 Exam 2026/2027 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 50
A 28-year-old female presents with cyclic pelvic pain and infertility. During laparoscopy, ectopic
endometrial tissue is found on the ovaries and peritoneum. Which hormone primarily stimulates the
proliferation of this ectopic endometrial tissue each cycle?
A. Progesterone, which stabilizes and atrophies endometrial tissue throughout the cycle.
B. Estrogen, which stimulates endometrial gland and stromal growth in both eutopic and ectopic
locations.
C. Follicle-stimulating hormone, which acts directly on endometrial receptors to cause shedding.
D. Luteinizing hormone, which directly triggers endometrial vascular necrosis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Estrogen drives proliferation of endometrial tissue, including ectopic implants in endometriosis, which
is why estrogen suppression is a treatment strategy. Progesterone stabilizes rather than proliferates
endometrium, and FSH and LH act on the ovary, not directly on endometrial tissue.
Q2 Question 2 of 50
A 19-year-old male is evaluated for infertility and found to have a varicocele on the left side. Which
anatomic factor best explains why varicoceles are more common on the left side?
A. The left testicular vein drains directly into the inferior vena cava, causing rapid backflow.
B. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein at a perpendicular angle, increasing hydrostatic
pressure.
C. The right testicular artery compresses the left testicular vein during ejaculation.
D. The left testicular vein is absent, forcing blood through lymphatic channels.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein at a right angle, creating higher resistance and
hydrostatic pressure that predisposes to varicocele formation. The right testicular vein drains directly
into the IVC, making right-sided varicoceles less common.
Portage Learning A&P 2 Module 7 Exam 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% Page 2 of 28
, Q3 Question 3 of 50
A pathology report describes a cervical biopsy showing abnormal cells confined to the basal third of
the epithelium with intact basement membrane. Which term best classifies this finding?
A. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia III (CIN III), a high-grade lesion requiring immediate excision.
B. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia I (CIN I), a low-grade lesion that often regresses spontaneously.
C. Invasive squamous cell carcinoma that has breached the basement membrane.
D. Carcinoma in situ with full-thickness epithelial involvement and glandular extension.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Confined abnormal proliferation in the basal third of the epithelium with an intact basement membrane
defines CIN I, a low-grade lesion. CIN III involves the full thickness, carcinoma in situ also involves full
thickness without invasion, and invasive carcinoma has breached the basement membrane.
Q4 Question 4 of 50
A 32-year-old female undergoes evaluation for amenorrhea. Laboratory testing reveals low
follicle-stimulating hormone, low luteinizing hormone, and low estradiol. Which condition best
explains these findings?
A. Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, in which the anterior pituitary fails to secrete adequate
gonadotropins.
B. Primary ovarian failure, in which the ovaries fail and gonadotropins rise in compensation.
C. Polycystic ovary syndrome, in which LH is elevated relative to FSH with high androgens.
D. Pregnancy, in which both FSH and LH are markedly elevated to sustain the corpus luteum.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Low FSH, low LH, and low estradiol indicate the pituitary is not signaling the ovaries, consistent with
hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Primary ovarian failure would produce high gonadotropins, PCOS
shows elevated LH/androgens, and pregnancy has high hCG, not high FSH/LH.
Portage Learning A&P 2 Module 7 Exam 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% Page 3 of 28
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Portage Learning A&P 2 Module 7
Exam 2026/2027
50 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Reproductive System Acid-Base Balance
Development & Genetics Integrative Physiology
Fluid & Electrolyte Balance
Portage Learning A&P 2 Module 7 Exam 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% Page 1 of 28
Portage Learning A&P 2 Module 7 Exam 2026/2027 COVER PAGE - 1
2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 of N
, SECTION 1 | Reproductive System | Q1-Q10 | Portage Learning A&P 2 Module 7 Exam 2026/2027 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 50
A 28-year-old female presents with cyclic pelvic pain and infertility. During laparoscopy, ectopic
endometrial tissue is found on the ovaries and peritoneum. Which hormone primarily stimulates the
proliferation of this ectopic endometrial tissue each cycle?
A. Progesterone, which stabilizes and atrophies endometrial tissue throughout the cycle.
B. Estrogen, which stimulates endometrial gland and stromal growth in both eutopic and ectopic
locations.
C. Follicle-stimulating hormone, which acts directly on endometrial receptors to cause shedding.
D. Luteinizing hormone, which directly triggers endometrial vascular necrosis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Estrogen drives proliferation of endometrial tissue, including ectopic implants in endometriosis, which
is why estrogen suppression is a treatment strategy. Progesterone stabilizes rather than proliferates
endometrium, and FSH and LH act on the ovary, not directly on endometrial tissue.
Q2 Question 2 of 50
A 19-year-old male is evaluated for infertility and found to have a varicocele on the left side. Which
anatomic factor best explains why varicoceles are more common on the left side?
A. The left testicular vein drains directly into the inferior vena cava, causing rapid backflow.
B. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein at a perpendicular angle, increasing hydrostatic
pressure.
C. The right testicular artery compresses the left testicular vein during ejaculation.
D. The left testicular vein is absent, forcing blood through lymphatic channels.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein at a right angle, creating higher resistance and
hydrostatic pressure that predisposes to varicocele formation. The right testicular vein drains directly
into the IVC, making right-sided varicoceles less common.
Portage Learning A&P 2 Module 7 Exam 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% Page 2 of 28
, Q3 Question 3 of 50
A pathology report describes a cervical biopsy showing abnormal cells confined to the basal third of
the epithelium with intact basement membrane. Which term best classifies this finding?
A. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia III (CIN III), a high-grade lesion requiring immediate excision.
B. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia I (CIN I), a low-grade lesion that often regresses spontaneously.
C. Invasive squamous cell carcinoma that has breached the basement membrane.
D. Carcinoma in situ with full-thickness epithelial involvement and glandular extension.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Confined abnormal proliferation in the basal third of the epithelium with an intact basement membrane
defines CIN I, a low-grade lesion. CIN III involves the full thickness, carcinoma in situ also involves full
thickness without invasion, and invasive carcinoma has breached the basement membrane.
Q4 Question 4 of 50
A 32-year-old female undergoes evaluation for amenorrhea. Laboratory testing reveals low
follicle-stimulating hormone, low luteinizing hormone, and low estradiol. Which condition best
explains these findings?
A. Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, in which the anterior pituitary fails to secrete adequate
gonadotropins.
B. Primary ovarian failure, in which the ovaries fail and gonadotropins rise in compensation.
C. Polycystic ovary syndrome, in which LH is elevated relative to FSH with high androgens.
D. Pregnancy, in which both FSH and LH are markedly elevated to sustain the corpus luteum.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Low FSH, low LH, and low estradiol indicate the pituitary is not signaling the ovaries, consistent with
hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Primary ovarian failure would produce high gonadotropins, PCOS
shows elevated LH/androgens, and pregnancy has high hCG, not high FSH/LH.
Portage Learning A&P 2 Module 7 Exam 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% Page 3 of 28
