NBCE PT BOARDS EXAM NEWEST 2026
ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK | COMPLETE
PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
SECTION 1: THERAPEUTIC EXERCISE & REHABILITATION PROTOCOLS
1. A patient with chronic ankle instability fails the Star Excursion Balance Test
in the anteromedial reach direction. Which exercise is MOST appropriate
initially?
A) Single-limb stance on a firm surface with eyes open
B) Single-limb stance on a foam pad with eyes closed
C) Anterior reach on the uninvolved leg
D) Double-leg squat on a BOSU ball
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Initial retraining begins with a stable, low-challenge environment (firm
surface, eyes open) to develop proprioceptive control before progressing to
unstable surfaces or reduced visual input.
2. Which finding BEST indicates progression from isometric to concentric-
eccentric rotator cuff strengthening?
A) Pain-free isometric contraction at 50% MVC
B) Full passive range of motion without pain
,C) Ability to hold the arm in 90° abduction for 30 seconds without substitution
D) Negative drop arm test
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Functional isometric endurance (holding a position) precedes dynamic
concentric/eccentric control. The drop arm test (D) rules out full-thickness tear but
does not assess strength readiness.
3. A patient with patellofemoral pain exhibits excessive femoral adduction and
internal rotation during single-leg squat. Which muscle is MOST likely
underactive?
A) Gluteus maximus
B) Gluteus medius
C) Tensor fasciae latae
D) Quadratus lumborum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gluteus medius weakness allows femoral adduction and internal
rotation (dynamic valgus). TFL (C) is often overactive in this pattern.
4. During lumbar stabilization training, a patient cannot maintain a neutral
spine while performing a contralateral arm lift in quadruped. The MOST
appropriate cue is:
,A) "Tuck your tailbone under"
B) "Arch your back more"
C) "Brace as if preparing for a punch"
D) "Relax your abdomen completely"
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bracing increases intra-abdominal pressure and encourages a neutral
spine. Posterior pelvic tilt (A) promotes flexion, worsening the pattern.
5. Which exercise BEST targets serratus anterior in a patient with scapular
winging?
A) Seated rows with elbows tucked
B) Push-up plus at end range
C) Prone IYT raises
D) Standing external rotation with band
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Push-up plus (protraction at end range) selectively activates serratus
anterior. Rows (A) target rhomboids; IYT (C) targets lower/middle trapezius.
6. A patient with patellar tendinopathy (jumper's knee) has pain with single-leg
decline squats. The MOST appropriate initial exercise is:
A) Full-depth double-leg squat on flat surface
B) Isometric quadriceps contraction at 60° knee flexion
, C) Plyometric box jumps
D) Single-leg leg press at 90° flexion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Isometrics reduce pain in tendinopathy without tendon strain. Decline
squats (load on stretch) are too advanced initially; plyometrics are later stage.
7. During the Sahrmann lower abdominal progression, a patient cannot perform
knee lift (stage 2) without lumbar extension. The NEXT step is:
A) Add a blood pressure cuff under the lumbar spine
B) Perform heel slides instead of knee lifts
C) Progress to stage 3 (leg lowering)
D) Perform stage 1 (abdominal bracing supine) for 2 more weeks
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A pressure biofeedback unit provides feedback to maintain neutral
spine. Regressing to stage 1 (D) may be necessary but feedback (A) is first-line
before full regression.
8. A patient with rotator cuff tendinopathy has a painful arc (70°–120°
abduction). The FIRST strengthening exercise should be:
A) Empty can with 5 lbs
B) Sidelying external rotation at 0° abduction
ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK | COMPLETE
PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
SECTION 1: THERAPEUTIC EXERCISE & REHABILITATION PROTOCOLS
1. A patient with chronic ankle instability fails the Star Excursion Balance Test
in the anteromedial reach direction. Which exercise is MOST appropriate
initially?
A) Single-limb stance on a firm surface with eyes open
B) Single-limb stance on a foam pad with eyes closed
C) Anterior reach on the uninvolved leg
D) Double-leg squat on a BOSU ball
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Initial retraining begins with a stable, low-challenge environment (firm
surface, eyes open) to develop proprioceptive control before progressing to
unstable surfaces or reduced visual input.
2. Which finding BEST indicates progression from isometric to concentric-
eccentric rotator cuff strengthening?
A) Pain-free isometric contraction at 50% MVC
B) Full passive range of motion without pain
,C) Ability to hold the arm in 90° abduction for 30 seconds without substitution
D) Negative drop arm test
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Functional isometric endurance (holding a position) precedes dynamic
concentric/eccentric control. The drop arm test (D) rules out full-thickness tear but
does not assess strength readiness.
3. A patient with patellofemoral pain exhibits excessive femoral adduction and
internal rotation during single-leg squat. Which muscle is MOST likely
underactive?
A) Gluteus maximus
B) Gluteus medius
C) Tensor fasciae latae
D) Quadratus lumborum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gluteus medius weakness allows femoral adduction and internal
rotation (dynamic valgus). TFL (C) is often overactive in this pattern.
4. During lumbar stabilization training, a patient cannot maintain a neutral
spine while performing a contralateral arm lift in quadruped. The MOST
appropriate cue is:
,A) "Tuck your tailbone under"
B) "Arch your back more"
C) "Brace as if preparing for a punch"
D) "Relax your abdomen completely"
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bracing increases intra-abdominal pressure and encourages a neutral
spine. Posterior pelvic tilt (A) promotes flexion, worsening the pattern.
5. Which exercise BEST targets serratus anterior in a patient with scapular
winging?
A) Seated rows with elbows tucked
B) Push-up plus at end range
C) Prone IYT raises
D) Standing external rotation with band
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Push-up plus (protraction at end range) selectively activates serratus
anterior. Rows (A) target rhomboids; IYT (C) targets lower/middle trapezius.
6. A patient with patellar tendinopathy (jumper's knee) has pain with single-leg
decline squats. The MOST appropriate initial exercise is:
A) Full-depth double-leg squat on flat surface
B) Isometric quadriceps contraction at 60° knee flexion
, C) Plyometric box jumps
D) Single-leg leg press at 90° flexion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Isometrics reduce pain in tendinopathy without tendon strain. Decline
squats (load on stretch) are too advanced initially; plyometrics are later stage.
7. During the Sahrmann lower abdominal progression, a patient cannot perform
knee lift (stage 2) without lumbar extension. The NEXT step is:
A) Add a blood pressure cuff under the lumbar spine
B) Perform heel slides instead of knee lifts
C) Progress to stage 3 (leg lowering)
D) Perform stage 1 (abdominal bracing supine) for 2 more weeks
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A pressure biofeedback unit provides feedback to maintain neutral
spine. Regressing to stage 1 (D) may be necessary but feedback (A) is first-line
before full regression.
8. A patient with rotator cuff tendinopathy has a painful arc (70°–120°
abduction). The FIRST strengthening exercise should be:
A) Empty can with 5 lbs
B) Sidelying external rotation at 0° abduction
