NR324 CLINICAL JUDGMENT EXAM (CJE) EXAM NEWEST 2026 TEST
BANK| COMPLETE 300 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) WITH
RATIONALES ALREADY GRADED A+| CHAMBERLAIN UNIVERSITY
(MOST RECENT!!)
SECTION 1: FUNDAMENTALS & PATIENT SAFETY (Questions 1–30)
Q1. A nurse is caring for a patient who is NPO. Which of the following is the
priority intervention to prevent complications?
A) Provide oral care every 2 hours.
B) Place an "NPO" sign above the bed.
C) Assess for thirst and dry mucous membranes.
D) Keep water at the bedside.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Providing oral care every 2 hours prevents dry mucous membranes,
cracking, and infection, which are common complications of NPO status. While
signage (B) and assessment (C) are important, oral care is the direct
intervention to prevent tissue breakdown. Water at bedside (D) is
contraindicated.
Q2. A patient has an order for a "clear liquid diet." Which item is appropriate?
A) Orange juice with pulp
B) Chicken broth
C) Cream of wheat
D) Vanilla pudding
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clear liquids are transparent at room temperature (broth, clear
juices, gelatin). Pulp (A) makes orange juice unclear. Cream of wheat (C) and
pudding (D) are full or soft liquids.
1
,Q3. The nurse prepares to administer subcutaneous heparin. Which site is best?
A) Deltoid muscle
B) Ventrogluteal site
C) Abdomen, 2 inches away from umbilicus
D) Vastus lateralis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The abdomen is the preferred site for subcutaneous heparin due to
consistent absorption and adequate subcutaneous tissue. Avoid 2 inches around
umbilicus to prevent bruising/bleeding. Deltoid (A) and vastus lateralis (D) are
IM sites. Ventrogluteal (B) is an IM site, not subcutaneous.
Q4. A patient falls while ambulating to the bathroom. What is the nurse's first
action?
A) Call the provider.
B) Assess the patient for injuries.
C) Complete an incident report.
D) Notify the charge nurse.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Assessment of the patient for injuries is the immediate priority
(ABCs and safety). Calling the provider (A), incident report (C), and notifying
charge nurse (D) come after the initial patient assessment.
Q5. Which finding indicates a stage 2 pressure injury?
A) Non-blanchable erythema over a bony prominence
B) Partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis
C) Full-thickness tissue loss with visible bone
D) Intact skin with a serum-filled blister
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Stage 2 involves partial-thickness loss of dermis (shallow ulcer or
2
,intact/ruptured blister). Non-blanchable erythema (A) is Stage 1. Visible bone
(C) is Stage 4. Intact serum blister (D) is also Stage 2, but the best
description of Stage 2 is partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis.
Q6. The nurse applies restraints to a confused patient. Which action is correct?
A) Apply restraints tightly to prevent movement.
B) Tie restraints to the side rail for easy access.
C) Obtain a provider's order within 24 hours.
D) Remove restraints every 2 hours for ROM and skin checks.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Restraints must be removed every 2 hours for range of motion, skin
checks, and toileting. They must never be tight (A) – 2-finger slack is needed.
Tying to side rails (B) can cause injury if the rail is lowered. An order must be
obtained immediately (not within 24 hours, C) and renewed per policy.
Q7. A patient is on contact precautions for Clostridium difficile. Which PPE is
required for entry?
A) N95 respirator and gown
B) Gloves and gown
C) Mask and gloves
D) Gown and eye shield
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Contact precautions require gloves and gown. N95 (A) is for airborne.
Mask (C) is for droplet. Eye shield (D) is for standard/contact splash risk.
Q8. The nurse notes a small fire in a patient's trash can. What is the priority
action using RACE?
A) Remove the trash can from the room.
B) Activate the fire alarm.
C) Rescue patients in immediate danger.
D) Extinguish the fire with a fire extinguisher.
3
, Correct Answer: C
Rationale: RACE stands for Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish. Rescuing
patients in immediate danger is the first priority.
Q9. A patient has a living will. The patient becomes unable to make decisions.
Who makes healthcare decisions?
A) The patient's spouse
B) The healthcare proxy named in the document
C) The primary care provider
D) The hospital ethics committee
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A living will appoints a healthcare proxy or surrogate to make
decisions when the patient is incapacitated. The spouse (A) only if named as
proxy. The provider (C) and ethics committee (D) do not override the proxy.
Q10. Which blood pressure reading indicates orthostatic hypotension?
A) Supine 120/80, Standing 118/76
B) Supine 130/84, Standing 110/70
C) Supine 140/90, Standing 138/88
D) Supine 110/70, Standing 112/68
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension is a drop in SBP ≥20 mmHg or DBP ≥10 mmHg
within 3 minutes of standing. Here, SBP dropped 20 (130 to 110) and DBP
dropped
14 (84 to 70). The others show minimal change.
Q11. A patient reports severe pain (8/10). The nurse administers morphine 4 mg
IV. When should the nurse reassess pain?
A) Immediately after injection
B) 5 minutes after injection
4
BANK| COMPLETE 300 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) WITH
RATIONALES ALREADY GRADED A+| CHAMBERLAIN UNIVERSITY
(MOST RECENT!!)
SECTION 1: FUNDAMENTALS & PATIENT SAFETY (Questions 1–30)
Q1. A nurse is caring for a patient who is NPO. Which of the following is the
priority intervention to prevent complications?
A) Provide oral care every 2 hours.
B) Place an "NPO" sign above the bed.
C) Assess for thirst and dry mucous membranes.
D) Keep water at the bedside.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Providing oral care every 2 hours prevents dry mucous membranes,
cracking, and infection, which are common complications of NPO status. While
signage (B) and assessment (C) are important, oral care is the direct
intervention to prevent tissue breakdown. Water at bedside (D) is
contraindicated.
Q2. A patient has an order for a "clear liquid diet." Which item is appropriate?
A) Orange juice with pulp
B) Chicken broth
C) Cream of wheat
D) Vanilla pudding
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clear liquids are transparent at room temperature (broth, clear
juices, gelatin). Pulp (A) makes orange juice unclear. Cream of wheat (C) and
pudding (D) are full or soft liquids.
1
,Q3. The nurse prepares to administer subcutaneous heparin. Which site is best?
A) Deltoid muscle
B) Ventrogluteal site
C) Abdomen, 2 inches away from umbilicus
D) Vastus lateralis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The abdomen is the preferred site for subcutaneous heparin due to
consistent absorption and adequate subcutaneous tissue. Avoid 2 inches around
umbilicus to prevent bruising/bleeding. Deltoid (A) and vastus lateralis (D) are
IM sites. Ventrogluteal (B) is an IM site, not subcutaneous.
Q4. A patient falls while ambulating to the bathroom. What is the nurse's first
action?
A) Call the provider.
B) Assess the patient for injuries.
C) Complete an incident report.
D) Notify the charge nurse.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Assessment of the patient for injuries is the immediate priority
(ABCs and safety). Calling the provider (A), incident report (C), and notifying
charge nurse (D) come after the initial patient assessment.
Q5. Which finding indicates a stage 2 pressure injury?
A) Non-blanchable erythema over a bony prominence
B) Partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis
C) Full-thickness tissue loss with visible bone
D) Intact skin with a serum-filled blister
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Stage 2 involves partial-thickness loss of dermis (shallow ulcer or
2
,intact/ruptured blister). Non-blanchable erythema (A) is Stage 1. Visible bone
(C) is Stage 4. Intact serum blister (D) is also Stage 2, but the best
description of Stage 2 is partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis.
Q6. The nurse applies restraints to a confused patient. Which action is correct?
A) Apply restraints tightly to prevent movement.
B) Tie restraints to the side rail for easy access.
C) Obtain a provider's order within 24 hours.
D) Remove restraints every 2 hours for ROM and skin checks.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Restraints must be removed every 2 hours for range of motion, skin
checks, and toileting. They must never be tight (A) – 2-finger slack is needed.
Tying to side rails (B) can cause injury if the rail is lowered. An order must be
obtained immediately (not within 24 hours, C) and renewed per policy.
Q7. A patient is on contact precautions for Clostridium difficile. Which PPE is
required for entry?
A) N95 respirator and gown
B) Gloves and gown
C) Mask and gloves
D) Gown and eye shield
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Contact precautions require gloves and gown. N95 (A) is for airborne.
Mask (C) is for droplet. Eye shield (D) is for standard/contact splash risk.
Q8. The nurse notes a small fire in a patient's trash can. What is the priority
action using RACE?
A) Remove the trash can from the room.
B) Activate the fire alarm.
C) Rescue patients in immediate danger.
D) Extinguish the fire with a fire extinguisher.
3
, Correct Answer: C
Rationale: RACE stands for Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish. Rescuing
patients in immediate danger is the first priority.
Q9. A patient has a living will. The patient becomes unable to make decisions.
Who makes healthcare decisions?
A) The patient's spouse
B) The healthcare proxy named in the document
C) The primary care provider
D) The hospital ethics committee
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A living will appoints a healthcare proxy or surrogate to make
decisions when the patient is incapacitated. The spouse (A) only if named as
proxy. The provider (C) and ethics committee (D) do not override the proxy.
Q10. Which blood pressure reading indicates orthostatic hypotension?
A) Supine 120/80, Standing 118/76
B) Supine 130/84, Standing 110/70
C) Supine 140/90, Standing 138/88
D) Supine 110/70, Standing 112/68
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension is a drop in SBP ≥20 mmHg or DBP ≥10 mmHg
within 3 minutes of standing. Here, SBP dropped 20 (130 to 110) and DBP
dropped
14 (84 to 70). The others show minimal change.
Q11. A patient reports severe pain (8/10). The nurse administers morphine 4 mg
IV. When should the nurse reassess pain?
A) Immediately after injection
B) 5 minutes after injection
4
