**2026/2027** — 2026/2027 Official Exam
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
West Coast EMT Block 4 Exam | Questions and Verified
Answers Rated A+ | Latest 2026/2027 Guide
**2026/2027** — 2026/2027 Official Exam
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QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Medical Emergencies & Treatment Emergency Pharmacology
Trauma Assessment & Management EMS Operations & Safety
Airway Management & Ventilation Patient Assessment & Documentation
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTION 1 | Medical Emergencies and Treatment | Q1-Q15 | West Coast EMT Block 4 Exam | Questions and Verified Answers Rated A+ | Latest 2026/2027
S1 Guide **2026/2027** — 2026/2027 Official Exam 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 75
A 58-year-old man with a history of diabetes presents confused and diaphoretic. His blood glucose reads 38 mg
per dL on a glucometer, and he is unable to swallow safely. Which intervention is most appropriate for the EMT to
administer?
A. Administer oral glucose packets between the cheek and gum to slowly absorb through mucosa.
B. Administer glucagon intramuscularly into the deltoid or vastus lateralis and monitor for response within
10 to 15 minutes.
C. Administer 50 percent dextrose intravenously through a peripheral IV line established by the EMT.
D. Administer insulin subcutaneously to lower any rebound hyperglycemia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Glucagon IM is the correct intervention for a hypoglycemic patient who cannot safely swallow, stimulating hepatic glycogen release
within 10 to 15 minutes. Oral glucose risks aspiration in an altered patient; IV dextrose requires advanced life support; insulin would
worsen hypoglycemia.
Q2 Question 2 of 75
A 67-year-old woman complains of sudden onset tearing chest pain radiating to her back, with blood pressure of
180 over 100 in the right arm and 100 over 60 in the left arm. Which condition should the EMT most strongly
suspect?
A. Acute myocardial infarction, suggested by substernal chest pressure radiating to the left arm.
B. Pulmonary embolism, suggested by pleuritic chest pain with sudden dyspnea and tachycardia.
C. Acute aortic dissection, suggested by tearing chest pain, blood pressure differential greater than 20
mmHg between arms, and radiation to the back.
D. Tension pneumothorax, suggested by unilateral absent breath sounds and tracheal deviation.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Tearing chest pain radiating to the back with a significant inter-arm blood pressure differential is classic for acute aortic dissection.
MI produces substernal pressure radiating to the left arm; PE produces pleuritic pain with dyspnea; tension pneumothorax
produces absent breath sounds and tracheal deviation.
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, Q3 Question 3 of 75
A 45-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion, ataxia, and nystagmus. His friend
reports he has not eaten in 3 days. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely responsible for his neurologic findings?
A. Vitamin B12 deficiency causing subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.
B. Folate deficiency causing macrocytic anemia with mild confusion.
C. Vitamin C deficiency causing scurvy with bleeding gums and weakness.
D. Thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency causing Wernicke encephalopathy, requiring immediate intravenous
thiamine administration before glucose.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Wernicke encephalopathy from thiamine deficiency in chronic alcohol abuse presents with confusion, ataxia, and nystagmus; IV
thiamine must be given before glucose to prevent irreversible brain damage. B12, folate, and vitamin C deficiencies do not cause
this acute triad.
Q4 Question 4 of 75
A 62-year-old woman with a history of heart failure presents with progressively worsening shortness of breath,
bilateral crackles to mid-lung fields, and pink frothy sputum. Which pathophysiologic process best explains her
presentation?
A. Acute pulmonary edema from left ventricular failure causing increased pulmonary capillary pressure
and fluid transudation into alveoli.
B. Acute exacerbation of COPD from bronchospasm causing air trapping and hyperinflation.
C. Pulmonary embolism from a deep vein thrombosis causing sudden ventilation-perfusion mismatch.
D. Spontaneous pneumothorax causing lung collapse and mediastinal shift.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Pink frothy sputum with bilateral crackles in a heart failure patient indicates acute pulmonary edema from left ventricular failure
increasing pulmonary capillary pressure. COPD produces wheezing without frothy sputum; PE causes sudden dyspnea without
crackles; pneumothorax produces unilateral decreased breath sounds.
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, Q5 Question 5 of 75
A 28-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes presents with nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and deep rapid
respirations. Her blood glucose reads 480 mg per dL, her breath has a fruity odor, and her skin is dry with poor
skin turgor. Which condition is most likely?
A. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, suggested by extreme hyperglycemia without ketones in a type 2 diabetic
patient.
B. Diabetic ketoacidosis, suggested by hyperglycemia, ketone production causing fruity breath, Kussmaul
respirations, and dehydration.
C. Hypoglycemia, suggested by low glucose with altered mental status and diaphoresis.
D. Acute gastroenteritis, suggested by nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain without metabolic changes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Hyperglycemia, fruity breath (ketones), Kussmaul respirations, and dehydration in a type 1 diabetic indicate DKA. HHS occurs in
type 2 diabetics without significant ketones; hypoglycemia has low glucose and diaphoresis; gastroenteritis does not cause these
metabolic findings.
Q6 Question 6 of 75
A 55-year-old man complains of crushing substernal chest pain for the past 30 minutes, diaphoresis, and nausea.
His prescribed medication bottle of nitroglycerin is on the table. Which action by the EMT is most appropriate
regarding nitroglycerin administration?
A. Administer nitroglycerin regardless of blood pressure since the patient has chest pain.
B. Administer three nitroglycerin doses simultaneously for faster relief.
C. Confirm the patient has a prescription, check blood pressure above 100 systolic, and administer one
dose sublingually per medical direction before reassessing.
D. Withhold nitroglycerin since the patient has already taken a dose earlier today.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
EMTs can administer prescribed nitroglycerin sublingually after confirming the prescription, checking that systolic blood pressure is
above 100, and following medical direction. Administering without checking BP risks hypotension; multiple simultaneous doses are
unsafe; a prior dose alone does not contraindicate if criteria are met.
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