2026-2026 HESI Pharmacology V1 –
Actual Questions & Answers 100%
Guarantee Pass
A client with a peptic ulcer is diagnosed with a Helicobacter pylori infection. The
nurse is reinforcing teaching for the client about the medications prescribed,
including clarithromycin (Biaxin), esomeprazole (Nexium), and amoxicillin (Amoxil).
Which statement by the client indicates the best understanding of the medication
regimen?
1. "My ulcer will heal because these medications will kill the bacteria."
2. "These medications are only taken when I have pain from my ulcer."
3. "The medications will kill the bacteria and stop the acid production."
4. "These medications will coat the ulcer and decrease the acid production in my
stomach." - ------------ANS: 3. "The medications will kill the bacteria and stop the acid
production."
Rationale:
Triple therapy for Helicobacter pylori infection usually includes two antibacterial
drugs and a proton pump inhibitor. Clarithromycin and amoxicillin are antibacterials.
Esomeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor. These medications will kill the bacteria and
decrease acid production.
A nurse is monitoring a client who is taking propranolol (Inderal LA). Which data
collection finding would indicate a potential serious complication associated with
propranolol?
1. The development of complaints of insomnia
2. The development of audible expiratory wheezes
3. A baseline blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg followed by a blood pressure of
138/72 mm Hg after two doses of the medication
4. A baseline resting heart rate of 88 beats/min followed by a resting heart rate of 72
beats/min after two doses of the medication - ------------ANS: 2. The development of
audible expiratory wheezes
Rationale:
Audible expiratory wheezes may indicate a serious adverse reaction, bronchospasm.
β- Blockers may induce this reaction, particularly in clients with chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease or asthma. Normal decreases in blood pressure and heart rate
are expected. Insomnia is a frequent mild side effect and should be monitored.
,A client has a prescription to take guaifenesin (Humibid) every 4 hours, as needed.
The nurse determines that the client understands the most effective use of this
medication if the client states that he or she will:
1. Watch for irritability as a side effect.
2. Take the tablet with a full glass of water.
3. Take an extra dose if the cough is accompanied by fever.
4. Crush the sustained-release tablet if immediate relief is needed. - ------------ANS:
2. Take the tablet with a full glass of water.
Rationale:
Guaifenesin is an expectorant. It should be taken with a full glass of water to
decrease viscosity of secretions. Sustained-release preparations should not be
broken open, crushed, or chewed. The medication may occasionally cause
dizziness, headache, or drowsiness as side effects. The client should contact the
health care provider if the cough lasts longer than 1 week or is accompanied by
fever, rash, sore throat, or persistent headache.
A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). A nurse
teaches the client that the medication:
1. Should always be taken with food or antacids
2. Should be double-dosed if one dose is forgotten
3. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces
4. May be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months -
------------ANS: 3. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces
Rationale:
Rifampin should be taken exactly as directed as part of TB therapy. Doses should
not be doubled or skipped. The client should not stop therapy until directed to do so
by a health care provider. The medication should be administered on an empty
stomach unless it causes gastrointestinal upset, and then it may be taken with food.
Antacids, if prescribed, should be taken at least 1 hour before the medication.
Rifampin causes orange-red discoloration of body secretions and will permanently
stain soft contact lenses.
A client has been taking isoniazid (INH) for 2 months. The client complains to a
nurse about numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities. The nurse
interprets that the client is experiencing:
1. Hypercalcemia
2. Peripheral neuritis
3. Small blood vessel spasm
4. Impaired peripheral circulation - ------------ANS: 2. Peripheral neuritis
Rationale:A common side effect of the TB drug INH is peripheral neuritis. This is
manifested by numbness, tingling, and paresthesia in the extremities. This side
,effect can be minimized by pyridoxine (vitamin B6) intake. Options 1, 3, and 4 are
incorrect.
A client is diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction and is receiving tissue
plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). Which action is a priority nursing
intervention?
1. Monitor for renal failure.
2. Monitor psychosocial status.
3. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
4. Have heparin sodium available. - ------------ANS: 3. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
Rationale:
Tissue plasminogen activator is a thrombolytic. Hemorrhage is a complication of any
type of thrombolytic medication. The client is monitored for bleeding. Monitoring for
renal failure and monitoring the client's psychosocial status are important but are not
the most critical interventions. Heparin is given after thrombolytic therapy, but the
question is not asking about follow-up medications.
A client is on nicotinic acid (niacin) for hyperlipidemia and the nurse provides
instructions to the client about the medication. Which statement by the client would
indicate an understanding of the instructions?
1. "It is not necessary to avoid the use of alcohol."
2. "The medication should be taken with meals to decrease flushing."
3. "Clay-colored stools are a common side effect and should not be of concern."
4. "Ibuprofen (Motrin) taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the
flushing." - ------------ANS: 4. "Ibuprofen (Motrin) taken 30 minutes before the
nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing."
Rationale:
Flushing is a side effect of this medication. Aspirin or a nonsteroidal
anti-inflammatory drug can be taken 30 minutes before taking the medication to
decrease flushing. Alcohol consumption needs to be avoided because it will enhance
this side effect. The medication should be taken with meals, this will decrease
gastrointestinal upset. Taking the medication with meals has no effect on the
flushing. Clay-colored stools are a sign of hepatic dysfunction and should be
immediately reported to the health care provider (HCP).
A client is receiving acetylcysteine (Mucomyst), 20% solution diluted in 0.9% normal
saline by nebulizer. The nurse should have which item available for possible use
after giving this medication?
1. Ambu bag
2. Intubation tray
3. Nasogastric tube
4. Suction equipment - ------------ANS: 4. Suction equipment
, Rationale:
Acetylcysteine can be given orally or by nasogastric tube to treat acetaminophen
overdose, or it may be given by inhalation for use as a mucolytic. The nurse
administering this medication as a mucolytic should have suction equipment
available in case the client cannot manage to clear the increased volume of liquefied
secretions.
A client is receiving meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) for pain. Which of the
following are side effects of this medication. Select all that apply.
1. Diarrhea
2. Tremors
3. Drowsiness
4. Hypotension
5. Urinary frequency
6. Increased respiratory rate - ------------ANS: 2. Tremors
3. Drowsiness
4. Hypotension
Rationale:Meperidine hydrochloride is an opioid analgesic. Side effects include
respiratory depression, drowsiness, hypotension, constipation, urinary retention,
nausea, vomiting, and tremors.
A client is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse reinforces
instructions for the client and tells the client that the most likely time for a
hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:
1. 2 to 4 hours after administration
2. 4 to 12 hours after administration
3. 16 to 18 hours after administration
4. 18 to 24 hours after administration - ------------ANS: 2. 4 to 12 hours after
administration
Rationale:
Humulin NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin. The onset of action is 1.5 hours, it
peaks in 4 to 12 hours, and its duration of action is 24 hours. Hypoglycemic reactions
most likely occur during peak time.
A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control and a sample for a serum
drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug
range?
1.) 5 to 10 mcg/mL
2. 10 to 20 mcg/mL
3. 20 to 30 mcg/mL
4. 30 to 40 mcg/mL - ------------ANS: 2. 10 to 20 mcg/mL
Actual Questions & Answers 100%
Guarantee Pass
A client with a peptic ulcer is diagnosed with a Helicobacter pylori infection. The
nurse is reinforcing teaching for the client about the medications prescribed,
including clarithromycin (Biaxin), esomeprazole (Nexium), and amoxicillin (Amoxil).
Which statement by the client indicates the best understanding of the medication
regimen?
1. "My ulcer will heal because these medications will kill the bacteria."
2. "These medications are only taken when I have pain from my ulcer."
3. "The medications will kill the bacteria and stop the acid production."
4. "These medications will coat the ulcer and decrease the acid production in my
stomach." - ------------ANS: 3. "The medications will kill the bacteria and stop the acid
production."
Rationale:
Triple therapy for Helicobacter pylori infection usually includes two antibacterial
drugs and a proton pump inhibitor. Clarithromycin and amoxicillin are antibacterials.
Esomeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor. These medications will kill the bacteria and
decrease acid production.
A nurse is monitoring a client who is taking propranolol (Inderal LA). Which data
collection finding would indicate a potential serious complication associated with
propranolol?
1. The development of complaints of insomnia
2. The development of audible expiratory wheezes
3. A baseline blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg followed by a blood pressure of
138/72 mm Hg after two doses of the medication
4. A baseline resting heart rate of 88 beats/min followed by a resting heart rate of 72
beats/min after two doses of the medication - ------------ANS: 2. The development of
audible expiratory wheezes
Rationale:
Audible expiratory wheezes may indicate a serious adverse reaction, bronchospasm.
β- Blockers may induce this reaction, particularly in clients with chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease or asthma. Normal decreases in blood pressure and heart rate
are expected. Insomnia is a frequent mild side effect and should be monitored.
,A client has a prescription to take guaifenesin (Humibid) every 4 hours, as needed.
The nurse determines that the client understands the most effective use of this
medication if the client states that he or she will:
1. Watch for irritability as a side effect.
2. Take the tablet with a full glass of water.
3. Take an extra dose if the cough is accompanied by fever.
4. Crush the sustained-release tablet if immediate relief is needed. - ------------ANS:
2. Take the tablet with a full glass of water.
Rationale:
Guaifenesin is an expectorant. It should be taken with a full glass of water to
decrease viscosity of secretions. Sustained-release preparations should not be
broken open, crushed, or chewed. The medication may occasionally cause
dizziness, headache, or drowsiness as side effects. The client should contact the
health care provider if the cough lasts longer than 1 week or is accompanied by
fever, rash, sore throat, or persistent headache.
A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). A nurse
teaches the client that the medication:
1. Should always be taken with food or antacids
2. Should be double-dosed if one dose is forgotten
3. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces
4. May be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months -
------------ANS: 3. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces
Rationale:
Rifampin should be taken exactly as directed as part of TB therapy. Doses should
not be doubled or skipped. The client should not stop therapy until directed to do so
by a health care provider. The medication should be administered on an empty
stomach unless it causes gastrointestinal upset, and then it may be taken with food.
Antacids, if prescribed, should be taken at least 1 hour before the medication.
Rifampin causes orange-red discoloration of body secretions and will permanently
stain soft contact lenses.
A client has been taking isoniazid (INH) for 2 months. The client complains to a
nurse about numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities. The nurse
interprets that the client is experiencing:
1. Hypercalcemia
2. Peripheral neuritis
3. Small blood vessel spasm
4. Impaired peripheral circulation - ------------ANS: 2. Peripheral neuritis
Rationale:A common side effect of the TB drug INH is peripheral neuritis. This is
manifested by numbness, tingling, and paresthesia in the extremities. This side
,effect can be minimized by pyridoxine (vitamin B6) intake. Options 1, 3, and 4 are
incorrect.
A client is diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction and is receiving tissue
plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). Which action is a priority nursing
intervention?
1. Monitor for renal failure.
2. Monitor psychosocial status.
3. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
4. Have heparin sodium available. - ------------ANS: 3. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
Rationale:
Tissue plasminogen activator is a thrombolytic. Hemorrhage is a complication of any
type of thrombolytic medication. The client is monitored for bleeding. Monitoring for
renal failure and monitoring the client's psychosocial status are important but are not
the most critical interventions. Heparin is given after thrombolytic therapy, but the
question is not asking about follow-up medications.
A client is on nicotinic acid (niacin) for hyperlipidemia and the nurse provides
instructions to the client about the medication. Which statement by the client would
indicate an understanding of the instructions?
1. "It is not necessary to avoid the use of alcohol."
2. "The medication should be taken with meals to decrease flushing."
3. "Clay-colored stools are a common side effect and should not be of concern."
4. "Ibuprofen (Motrin) taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the
flushing." - ------------ANS: 4. "Ibuprofen (Motrin) taken 30 minutes before the
nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing."
Rationale:
Flushing is a side effect of this medication. Aspirin or a nonsteroidal
anti-inflammatory drug can be taken 30 minutes before taking the medication to
decrease flushing. Alcohol consumption needs to be avoided because it will enhance
this side effect. The medication should be taken with meals, this will decrease
gastrointestinal upset. Taking the medication with meals has no effect on the
flushing. Clay-colored stools are a sign of hepatic dysfunction and should be
immediately reported to the health care provider (HCP).
A client is receiving acetylcysteine (Mucomyst), 20% solution diluted in 0.9% normal
saline by nebulizer. The nurse should have which item available for possible use
after giving this medication?
1. Ambu bag
2. Intubation tray
3. Nasogastric tube
4. Suction equipment - ------------ANS: 4. Suction equipment
, Rationale:
Acetylcysteine can be given orally or by nasogastric tube to treat acetaminophen
overdose, or it may be given by inhalation for use as a mucolytic. The nurse
administering this medication as a mucolytic should have suction equipment
available in case the client cannot manage to clear the increased volume of liquefied
secretions.
A client is receiving meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) for pain. Which of the
following are side effects of this medication. Select all that apply.
1. Diarrhea
2. Tremors
3. Drowsiness
4. Hypotension
5. Urinary frequency
6. Increased respiratory rate - ------------ANS: 2. Tremors
3. Drowsiness
4. Hypotension
Rationale:Meperidine hydrochloride is an opioid analgesic. Side effects include
respiratory depression, drowsiness, hypotension, constipation, urinary retention,
nausea, vomiting, and tremors.
A client is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse reinforces
instructions for the client and tells the client that the most likely time for a
hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:
1. 2 to 4 hours after administration
2. 4 to 12 hours after administration
3. 16 to 18 hours after administration
4. 18 to 24 hours after administration - ------------ANS: 2. 4 to 12 hours after
administration
Rationale:
Humulin NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin. The onset of action is 1.5 hours, it
peaks in 4 to 12 hours, and its duration of action is 24 hours. Hypoglycemic reactions
most likely occur during peak time.
A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control and a sample for a serum
drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug
range?
1.) 5 to 10 mcg/mL
2. 10 to 20 mcg/mL
3. 20 to 30 mcg/mL
4. 30 to 40 mcg/mL - ------------ANS: 2. 10 to 20 mcg/mL