Assessment 2: NURS110 / NURS 110 (Latest Update )
Introduction to Professional Nursing | Questions & Answers |
Grade A | 100% Correct - WCU - 150 Questions and Answers
Already Graded A+ Premium Exam Tested And Verified
Subject Area Introduction to Professional Nursing
Description This exam assesses foundational knowledge of professional nursing concepts
including nursing theory, ethics, evidence-based practice, health promotion,
patient safety, interprofessional collaboration, legal issues, and contemporary
nursing roles. Questions require critical thinking and application to clinical
scenarios.
Expected Grade A+
Total Questions 150
Duration 2 hours
Learning Outcomes 1. Analyze the historical evolution of nursing and its impact on current practice.
2. Apply ethical principles and legal standards to nursing decision-making.
3. Integrate evidence-based practice into patient care planning.
4. Demonstrate understanding of interprofessional collaboration and team
dynamics.
5. Evaluate health promotion and disease prevention strategies across the lifespan.
Accreditation West Coast University (WCU) CCNE-accredited nursing program, meeting
standards for pre-licensure baccalaureate nursing education.
Page 1
,1. A nursing student is reviewing the history of professional nursing. Which event is
most directly associated with the transformation of nursing from a domestic service
to a respected profession with standardized education?
Answer: Florence Nightingale's work during the Crimean War and subsequent
founding of the Nightingale Training School at St. Thomas' Hospital.
Florence Nightingale's Crimean War efforts and the establishment of the Nightingale
Training School in 1860 set the foundation for secular, scientifically based nursing
education, elevating nursing to a profession. While the Kaiserswerth school was earlier,
it was more religiously oriented. The ANA and Flexner Report were later developments
that built on Nightingale's foundation.
2. A nurse is caring for a patient with a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The
patient's family demands that resuscitation be attempted if the patient arrests. The
nurse understands that the ethical principle of autonomy is in conflict with which
other principle in this situation?
Answer: Fidelity
Fidelity refers to being faithful to promises and commitments. The nurse has a duty to
honor the patient's DNR order as a reflection of the patient's autonomy. The family's
demands create a conflict between respecting the patient's wishes (fidelity) and
potentially causing harm by performing unwanted resuscitation (nonmaleficence) or
acting in what the family perceives as best (beneficence). However, fidelity is directly
challenged because the nurse must remain true to the patient's directive.
3. A nurse is implementing evidence-based practice (EBP) for pressure injury
prevention. Which sequence of steps correctly follows the EBP process?
Answer: Formulate a clinical question, search for evidence, critically appraise
evidence, integrate evidence with clinical expertise and patient preferences,
evaluate outcomes.
The EBP process begins with asking a focused clinical question (using PICOT format),
then systematically searching for evidence, critically appraising its validity and
applicability, integrating it with clinical expertise and patient values, and finally
evaluating the outcomes. Option B reverses the first two steps; option C omits critical
appraisal; option D starts with appraisal, which is premature.
Page 2
,4. A nurse is assessing a community's health needs using the upstream thinking
approach. Which intervention best exemplifies this approach?
Answer: Advocating for policies that increase access to affordable fresh fruits and
vegetables in low-income neighborhoods.
Upstream thinking focuses on addressing the root causes of health problems at the
population level, such as social determinants of health. Advocating for policy change to
improve food access targets the underlying cause of diet-related diseases. The other
options are downstream interventions that address existing health issues or individual
behaviors rather than systemic factors.
5. A nurse is preparing to delegate a task to a nursing assistant. According to the
National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) delegation model, which
factor should the nurse prioritize when determining whether delegation is
appropriate?
Answer: The stability of the patient's condition and the complexity of the task.
The NCSBN delegation model emphasizes patient safety by considering the patient's
stability and the task's complexity. Tasks that are routine, low risk, and have
predictable outcomes may be delegated to competent assistive personnel. Experience
alone is not sufficient; the nurse must assess the patient's condition and task
requirements. Personal comfort and staff availability are secondary considerations.
6. A nurse is using the Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN)
competencies to improve care on a medical-surgical unit. Which action best
demonstrates the competency of 'teamwork and collaboration'?
Answer: A nurse participates in a multidisciplinary huddle to coordinate care for a
patient with complex needs.
Teamwork and collaboration involve functioning effectively within nursing and
interprofessional teams, fostering open communication, mutual respect, and shared
decision-making. Participating in a multidisciplinary huddle exemplifies this
competency. Option A reflects evidence-based practice but not collaboration; option C
relates to safety; option D relates to communication but not necessarily collaboration
across disciplines.
Page 3
, 7. A nurse is caring for a patient who is a Jehovah's Witness and refuses a blood
transfusion despite critical anemia. The nurse respects the patient's decision. Which
legal concept protects the nurse from liability for not administering the transfusion?
Answer: Patient self-determination
Patient self-determination is the legal and ethical principle that competent adults have
the right to refuse medical treatment, even life-saving measures. The nurse is protected
when honoring a patient's informed refusal. Informed consent (A) applies to
procedures, not refusal. An advance directive (B) may be relevant but is not the core
concept here; the patient is currently competent. Standard of care (D) would require
the nurse to respect the refusal.
8. A nurse educator is teaching a group of nursing students about the Health Belief
Model (HBM). Which scenario best illustrates the HBM construct of 'perceived
susceptibility'?
Answer: A patient believes that smoking increases the risk of lung cancer.
Perceived susceptibility is the individual's belief about the likelihood of contracting a
disease or condition. Option A directly reflects a belief about risk. Option B is perceived
benefits; option C is self-efficacy; option D is a cue to action (a trigger). The HBM is
used to predict health behaviors based on these constructs.
9. A nurse is using the SBAR (Situation-Background-Assessment-Recommendation)
communication tool during a handoff. Which statement by the nurse accurately
represents the 'Assessment' component?
Answer: The patient's lung sounds are diminished in the right base, and he is using
accessory muscles.
In SBAR, Assessment is the nurse's evaluation of the situation based on data. This
includes vital signs, physical findings, and interpretation. Option D provides objective
assessment data. Option A is Background; option B is Situation; option C is
Recommendation. Correct use of SBAR improves patient safety by standardizing
communication.
Page 4
Introduction to Professional Nursing | Questions & Answers |
Grade A | 100% Correct - WCU - 150 Questions and Answers
Already Graded A+ Premium Exam Tested And Verified
Subject Area Introduction to Professional Nursing
Description This exam assesses foundational knowledge of professional nursing concepts
including nursing theory, ethics, evidence-based practice, health promotion,
patient safety, interprofessional collaboration, legal issues, and contemporary
nursing roles. Questions require critical thinking and application to clinical
scenarios.
Expected Grade A+
Total Questions 150
Duration 2 hours
Learning Outcomes 1. Analyze the historical evolution of nursing and its impact on current practice.
2. Apply ethical principles and legal standards to nursing decision-making.
3. Integrate evidence-based practice into patient care planning.
4. Demonstrate understanding of interprofessional collaboration and team
dynamics.
5. Evaluate health promotion and disease prevention strategies across the lifespan.
Accreditation West Coast University (WCU) CCNE-accredited nursing program, meeting
standards for pre-licensure baccalaureate nursing education.
Page 1
,1. A nursing student is reviewing the history of professional nursing. Which event is
most directly associated with the transformation of nursing from a domestic service
to a respected profession with standardized education?
Answer: Florence Nightingale's work during the Crimean War and subsequent
founding of the Nightingale Training School at St. Thomas' Hospital.
Florence Nightingale's Crimean War efforts and the establishment of the Nightingale
Training School in 1860 set the foundation for secular, scientifically based nursing
education, elevating nursing to a profession. While the Kaiserswerth school was earlier,
it was more religiously oriented. The ANA and Flexner Report were later developments
that built on Nightingale's foundation.
2. A nurse is caring for a patient with a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The
patient's family demands that resuscitation be attempted if the patient arrests. The
nurse understands that the ethical principle of autonomy is in conflict with which
other principle in this situation?
Answer: Fidelity
Fidelity refers to being faithful to promises and commitments. The nurse has a duty to
honor the patient's DNR order as a reflection of the patient's autonomy. The family's
demands create a conflict between respecting the patient's wishes (fidelity) and
potentially causing harm by performing unwanted resuscitation (nonmaleficence) or
acting in what the family perceives as best (beneficence). However, fidelity is directly
challenged because the nurse must remain true to the patient's directive.
3. A nurse is implementing evidence-based practice (EBP) for pressure injury
prevention. Which sequence of steps correctly follows the EBP process?
Answer: Formulate a clinical question, search for evidence, critically appraise
evidence, integrate evidence with clinical expertise and patient preferences,
evaluate outcomes.
The EBP process begins with asking a focused clinical question (using PICOT format),
then systematically searching for evidence, critically appraising its validity and
applicability, integrating it with clinical expertise and patient values, and finally
evaluating the outcomes. Option B reverses the first two steps; option C omits critical
appraisal; option D starts with appraisal, which is premature.
Page 2
,4. A nurse is assessing a community's health needs using the upstream thinking
approach. Which intervention best exemplifies this approach?
Answer: Advocating for policies that increase access to affordable fresh fruits and
vegetables in low-income neighborhoods.
Upstream thinking focuses on addressing the root causes of health problems at the
population level, such as social determinants of health. Advocating for policy change to
improve food access targets the underlying cause of diet-related diseases. The other
options are downstream interventions that address existing health issues or individual
behaviors rather than systemic factors.
5. A nurse is preparing to delegate a task to a nursing assistant. According to the
National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) delegation model, which
factor should the nurse prioritize when determining whether delegation is
appropriate?
Answer: The stability of the patient's condition and the complexity of the task.
The NCSBN delegation model emphasizes patient safety by considering the patient's
stability and the task's complexity. Tasks that are routine, low risk, and have
predictable outcomes may be delegated to competent assistive personnel. Experience
alone is not sufficient; the nurse must assess the patient's condition and task
requirements. Personal comfort and staff availability are secondary considerations.
6. A nurse is using the Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN)
competencies to improve care on a medical-surgical unit. Which action best
demonstrates the competency of 'teamwork and collaboration'?
Answer: A nurse participates in a multidisciplinary huddle to coordinate care for a
patient with complex needs.
Teamwork and collaboration involve functioning effectively within nursing and
interprofessional teams, fostering open communication, mutual respect, and shared
decision-making. Participating in a multidisciplinary huddle exemplifies this
competency. Option A reflects evidence-based practice but not collaboration; option C
relates to safety; option D relates to communication but not necessarily collaboration
across disciplines.
Page 3
, 7. A nurse is caring for a patient who is a Jehovah's Witness and refuses a blood
transfusion despite critical anemia. The nurse respects the patient's decision. Which
legal concept protects the nurse from liability for not administering the transfusion?
Answer: Patient self-determination
Patient self-determination is the legal and ethical principle that competent adults have
the right to refuse medical treatment, even life-saving measures. The nurse is protected
when honoring a patient's informed refusal. Informed consent (A) applies to
procedures, not refusal. An advance directive (B) may be relevant but is not the core
concept here; the patient is currently competent. Standard of care (D) would require
the nurse to respect the refusal.
8. A nurse educator is teaching a group of nursing students about the Health Belief
Model (HBM). Which scenario best illustrates the HBM construct of 'perceived
susceptibility'?
Answer: A patient believes that smoking increases the risk of lung cancer.
Perceived susceptibility is the individual's belief about the likelihood of contracting a
disease or condition. Option A directly reflects a belief about risk. Option B is perceived
benefits; option C is self-efficacy; option D is a cue to action (a trigger). The HBM is
used to predict health behaviors based on these constructs.
9. A nurse is using the SBAR (Situation-Background-Assessment-Recommendation)
communication tool during a handoff. Which statement by the nurse accurately
represents the 'Assessment' component?
Answer: The patient's lung sounds are diminished in the right base, and he is using
accessory muscles.
In SBAR, Assessment is the nurse's evaluation of the situation based on data. This
includes vital signs, physical findings, and interpretation. Option D provides objective
assessment data. Option A is Background; option B is Situation; option C is
Recommendation. Correct use of SBAR improves patient safety by standardizing
communication.
Page 4
