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NSG 3500 Maternal Exam 1 - Comprehensive Practice Exam WITH QUESTIONS AND WELL VERIFIED ANSWERS ACTUAL!!!! 2026

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NSG 3500 Maternal Exam 1 - Comprehensive Practice Exam WITH QUESTIONS AND WELL VERIFIED ANSWERS ACTUAL!!!! 2026

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NSG 3500 Maternal Exam 1 - Comprehensive
Practice Exam WITH QUESTIONS AND WELL
VERIFIED ANSWERS ACTUAL!!!! 2026




Question 1:
A nurse is caring for a pregnant client who is Rh-negative. The nurse understands that RhoGAM
should NOT be administered in which situation?
A) At 28 weeks gestation to an Rh-negative client
B) After delivery if the newborn is Rh-positive
C) To a client who is Rh-positive
D) After an abortion or miscarriage in an Rh-negative client
nANswer: C
Rationale:
A) Incorrect - RhoGAM is routinely administered at 28 weeks gestation to Rh-negative clients to
prevent sensitization.
B) Incorrect - RhoGAM is given within 72 hours after delivery if the newborn is Rh-positive to
prevent maternal antibody formation.
C) Correct - RhoGAM is contraindicated in Rh-positive individuals because they already have the
Rh factor and do not need protection against Rh sensitization.
D) Incorrect - RhoGAM should be given after abortion, miscarriage, or any event where fetal-
maternal blood mixing could occur in Rh-negative clients.
Question 2:
A pregnant client asks about her rubella titer results. The nurse notes the client is rubella
immune. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
A) "You will need the rubella vaccine during your pregnancy."

,B) "You are immune to rubella, which protects you and your baby."
C) "We need to repeat the titer in your third trimester."
D) "You should avoid contact with children who have had rubella."

ANSWER✨✔-: B
Rationale:
A) Incorrect - Rubella vaccine is a live virus and is contraindicated during pregnancy. It should
be given postpartum if needed.
B) Correct - When a client is rubella immune (positive IgG titer), this indicates protection from
previous vaccination or infection, protecting both mother and fetus from congenital rubella
syndrome.
C) Incorrect - Repeat testing is not necessary if the client is already immune.
D) Incorrect - While general precautions are always good, an immune client does not need
special avoidance as she is protected.
Question 3:
A pregnant client tests positive for syphilis with a positive RPR. The nurse understands that
untreated syphilis in pregnancy can lead to which complication?
A) Gestational diabetes
B) Fetal death or stillbirth
C) Placenta previa
D) Hyperemesis gravidarum

ANSWER✨✔-: B
Rationale:
A) Incorrect - Syphilis is not associated with gestational diabetes development.
B) Correct - Untreated syphilis in pregnancy can cause fetal death, stillbirth, preterm birth, and
congenital syphilis. The infection can cross the placenta and cause severe fetal complications.
C) Incorrect - Syphilis does not cause placenta previa.
D) Incorrect - Syphilis is not associated with hyperemesis gravidarum.
Question 4:

,The nurse is educating a client about climacteric changes. Which hormone change is
characteristic of this period?
A) Increased estrogen
B) Decreased estrogen
C) Increased progesterone
D) Increased testosterone

ANSWER✨✔-: B
Rationale:
A) Incorrect - Estrogen levels decrease, not increase, during the climacteric period.
B) Correct - The climacteric is the transitional period from reproductive to non-reproductive
life, characterized by declining ovarian function and decreased estrogen production.
C) Incorrect - Progesterone levels also decrease during this time.
D) Incorrect - Testosterone is not the primary hormone change in climacteric.
Question 5:
A pregnant client with Group B Streptococcus (GBS) colonization reports increased urinary
frequency at night. The nurse recognizes this as:
A) A normal finding unrelated to GBS
B) Nocturia associated with GBS bacteriuria
C) A sign of preeclampsia
D) An indication of gestational diabetes

ANSWER✨✔-: B
Rationale:
A) Incorrect - While nocturia is common in pregnancy, GBS can specifically cause urinary tract
symptoms.
B) Correct - GBS can colonize the urinary tract and cause bacteriuria, which may present with
urinary symptoms including nocturia.
C) Incorrect - Nocturia alone is not indicative of preeclampsia.
D) Incorrect - Nocturia is not a specific sign of gestational diabetes.
Question 6:

, A client in her second trimester complains of numbness and tingling in her hands. The nurse
should recognize this as:
A) An abnormal finding requiring immediate intervention
B) Carpal tunnel syndrome, common in pregnancy
C) A sign of preeclampsia
D) An indication of gestational diabetes

ANSWER✨✔-: B
Rationale:
A) Incorrect - While uncomfortable, carpal tunnel syndrome is a common, expected finding in
pregnancy due to fluid retention.
B) Correct - Carpal tunnel syndrome affects 31-62% of pregnant women, typically in the second
or third trimester, due to increased fluid retention causing compression of the median nerve.
C) Incorrect - Carpal tunnel is not associated with preeclampsia.
D) Incorrect - Carpal tunnel syndrome is not related to gestational diabetes.
Question 7:
The nurse is reviewing blood pressure readings for pregnant clients. Which reading would be
considered within normal limits for pregnancy?
A) 150/95 mmHg
B) 140/90 mmHg
C) 110/70 mmHg
D) 160/100 mmHg

ANSWER✨✔-: C
Rationale:
A) Incorrect - This reading indicates hypertension in pregnancy.
B) Incorrect - This is the threshold for diagnosing hypertension in pregnancy.
C) Correct - Normal blood pressure in pregnancy is typically <120/80 mmHg. A reading of
110/70 is within normal limits.
D) Incorrect - This indicates severe hypertension requiring immediate intervention.
Question 8:

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