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1. A client with septic shock has a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 58 mm Hg despite
receiving intravenous fluids. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate next?
A. Administer furosemide
B. Start a norepinephrine infusion
C. Restrict fluids
D. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
Answer: B. Start a norepinephrine infusion
Rationale: A MAP of at least 65 mm Hg is generally the goal in septic shock. If fluid
resuscitation fails to restore adequate perfusion, norepinephrine is the first-line
vasopressor. Furosemide may worsen hypotension, fluid restriction is inappropriate, and
Trendelenburg positioning is not recommended for treating shock.
2. A client develops ventricular tachycardia without a pulse. What is the nurse's
priority action?
A. Administer atropine
B. Check blood glucose
C. Begin CPR and prepare for defibrillation
D. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
Answer: C. Begin CPR and prepare for defibrillation
Rationale: Pulseless ventricular tachycardia is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate
high-quality CPR and rapid defibrillation. Delays significantly reduce survival. Atropine is
not indicated, and diagnostic testing should never delay resuscitation.
, 3. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention in a client receiving
intravenous insulin for diabetic ketoacidosis?
A. Potassium 3.0 mEq/L
B. Sodium 138 mEq/L
C. Glucose 220 mg/dL
D. Magnesium 2.0 mg/dL
Answer: A. Potassium 3.0 mEq/L
Rationale: Insulin drives potassium into cells, increasing the risk for severe hypokalemia.
Potassium should be corrected before continuing insulin when levels are critically low
because life-threatening dysrhythmias may occur.
4. Which assessment finding suggests increased intracranial pressure?
A. Bradycardia with hypertension
B. Tachycardia with hypotension
C. Bounding peripheral pulses only
D. Warm flushed skin
Answer: A. Bradycardia with hypertension
Rationale: Bradycardia accompanied by hypertension is part of Cushing's triad, indicating
increased intracranial pressure. This finding requires immediate evaluation to prevent brain
herniation.
5. Which intervention has the highest priority for a mechanically ventilated client?
A. Provide oral care every 2 to 4 hours
B. Limit family visitation
C. Restrict repositioning
D. Administer sedatives every hour
Answer: A. Provide oral care every 2 to 4 hours
Rationale: Regular oral care significantly reduces the incidence of ventilator-associated
pneumonia by decreasing bacterial colonization. Repositioning and appropriate sedation
are also important, but routine oral hygiene is a key preventive measure.
, 6. Which arterial blood gas result indicates respiratory acidosis?
A. pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 52 mm Hg, HCO₃⁻ 25 mEq/L
B. pH 7.50, PaCO₂ 30 mm Hg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L
C. pH 7.48, PaCO₂ 40 mm Hg, HCO₃⁻ 30 mEq/L
D. pH 7.32, PaCO₂ 36 mm Hg, HCO₃⁻ 18 mEq/L
Answer: A. pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 52 mm Hg, HCO₃⁻ 25 mEq/L
Rationale: A low pH with an elevated PaCO₂ indicates respiratory acidosis caused by
inadequate ventilation. The bicarbonate remains within normal limits, suggesting little or no
metabolic compensation.
7. A client with acute pulmonary edema suddenly becomes extremely dyspneic.
Which intervention should the nurse perform first?
A. Lower the head of the bed
B. Place the client in high Fowler's position
C. Encourage oral fluids
D. Remove supplemental oxygen
Answer: B. Place the client in high Fowler's position
Rationale: High Fowler's position decreases venous return and improves lung expansion,
reducing respiratory distress. Oxygen and medications follow as indicated, but positioning
provides immediate relief.
8. Which hemodynamic finding is expected in cardiogenic shock?
A. Increased cardiac output
B. Elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressure
C. Low systemic vascular resistance
D. High mixed venous oxygen saturation
Answer: B. Elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressure
Rationale: Cardiogenic shock is characterized by left ventricular failure, resulting in
increased pulmonary artery wedge pressure, reduced cardiac output, and elevated
systemic vascular resistance.