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1. A nurse discovers smoke coming from a client's room in a medical-surgical unit.
What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Activate the fire alarm
B. Remove the client from immediate danger
C. Close all doors
D. Extinguish the fire
Answer: B. Remove the client from immediate danger
Rationale: The nurse should follow the RACE protocol. The first priority is Rescue—moving
anyone in immediate danger to safety. After ensuring client safety, the nurse activates the
alarm, contains the fire by closing doors, and then extinguishes the fire if appropriate.
2. A client is found lying unconscious on the hospital bathroom floor. What should the
nurse do first?
A. Call the healthcare provider
B. Assess responsiveness and breathing
C. Obtain vital signs
D. Document the incident
Answer: B. Assess responsiveness and breathing
Rationale: The first step in any emergency is to determine responsiveness, breathing, and
circulation. This rapid assessment guides whether emergency interventions, including CPR,
are necessary.
3. Which client should the emergency department nurse assess first?
A. A client with a fractured wrist
, B. A client with chest pain and diaphoresis
C. A client with a sprained ankle
D. A client requesting medication refills
Answer: B. A client with chest pain and diaphoresis
Rationale: Chest pain accompanied by diaphoresis may indicate an acute myocardial
infarction. According to triage principles, life-threatening conditions receive immediate
assessment and intervention.
4. Which intervention best reduces fall risk for an older adult admitted with confusion?
A. Apply wrist restraints.
B. Keep all side rails raised.
C. Place the bed in the lowest position and activate the bed alarm.
D. Keep the room lights off.
Answer: C. Place the bed in the lowest position and activate the bed alarm.
Rationale: A low bed, bed alarm, and frequent observation significantly reduce fall risk
while promoting client safety. Restraints and raising all side rails may increase injury risk.
5. Which action is appropriate when administering oxygen to a client with chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
A. Deliver 100% oxygen continuously.
B. Monitor oxygen saturation and respiratory status closely.
C. Remove oxygen during meals.
D. Administer oxygen only if respiratory distress occurs.
Answer: B. Monitor oxygen saturation and respiratory status closely.
Rationale: Clients with COPD require careful oxygen administration to maintain adequate
oxygenation while avoiding excessive oxygen delivery that may contribute to respiratory
depression in some individuals.
6. A nurse prepares to transfer a client from bed to chair. Which action promotes
safety?
A. Lock the wheelchair brakes.
B. Pull the client by both arms.
, C. Allow the client to wear slippery socks.
D. Place the wheelchair several feet away.
Answer: A. Lock the wheelchair brakes.
Rationale: Locking wheelchair brakes prevents movement during transfers, reducing fall
risk. Proper footwear and body mechanics are also essential.
7. Which finding indicates an airway emergency?
A. Blood pressure of 150/88 mmHg
B. Inspiratory stridor
C. Heart rate of 94 beats/min
D. Temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C)
Answer: B. Inspiratory stridor
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched sound indicating upper airway obstruction. Immediate
intervention is required to maintain airway patency.
8. Which action is most appropriate when using a fire extinguisher?
A. Aim above the flames.
B. Sweep from side to side at the base of the fire.
C. Stand close to the fire.
D. Spray the ceiling first.
Answer: B. Sweep from side to side at the base of the fire.
Rationale: The PASS technique includes Pull, Aim at the base, Squeeze, and Sweep from
side to side.
9. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Oxygen saturation of 84%
B. Blood pressure of 138/84 mmHg
C. Pulse rate of 88 beats/min
D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
Answer: A. Oxygen saturation of 84%