PEDIATRIC CMS PRACTICE EXAM 2026/2027 | ATI Nursing
Care of Children | Verified Questions & Answers | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: PEDIATRIC HEALTH SUPERVISION & PREVENTIVE CARE
Q1: A 2-week-old infant is brought for a routine well-child visit. The parents ask about
the recommended schedule for well-child visits during the first year of life according to
Bright Futures 2026 guidelines. Which schedule should the nurse practitioner
recommend?
A. Birth, 2 weeks, 1 month, 4 months, 6 months, 9 months, 12 months
B. Birth, 2-3 days, 2-4 weeks, 2 months, 4 months, 6 months, 9 months, 12 months
C. Birth, 1 month, 3 months, 6 months, 9 months, 12 months
D. Birth, 2 weeks, 2 months, 6 months, 12 months
B. Birth, 2-3 days, 2-4 weeks, 2 months, 4 months, 6 months, 9 months, 12 months
[CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bright Futures 2026 recommends well-child visits at birth, 2-3 days, 2-4
weeks, 2 months, 4 months, 6 months, 9 months, and 12 months. This schedule allows
for newborn screening follow-up, growth monitoring, developmental surveillance, and
timely immunizations. Option A misses the critical 2-3 day visit for jaundice and weight
assessment. Option C omits the 2-month and 4-month visits essential for early
immunization series. Option D is insufficient for comprehensive surveillance.
Q2: A 6-month-old infant presents for a well-child visit. The parents report the baby can
sit with support and rolls from prone to supine. Which additional developmental
milestone is most appropriate to expect at this age?
A. Pulls to stand independently
B. Transfers objects hand-to-hand
C. Walks holding onto furniture
D. Says "mama" and "dada" specifically
,B. Transfers objects hand-to-hand [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: At 6 months, infants typically transfer objects from hand to hand, bear weight
on legs when held, and begin babbling consonants. Pulling to stand (A) occurs at 9
months. Walking holding furniture (C) emerges at 9-12 months. Specific "mama/dada"
(D) is expected around 9-12 months. Bright Futures 2026 emphasizes developmental
surveillance at each visit using age-appropriate milestones.
Q3: A 12-month-old toddler is seen for a well-child visit. According to Bright Futures
2026, which screening test is recommended at this age?
A. Tuberculin skin test for all children
B. Lead level screening for all children
C. Hemoglobin or hematocrit for anemia screening
D. Fasting lipid panel for all children
C. Hemoglobin or hematocrit for anemia screening [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bright Futures 2026 recommends anemia screening
(hemoglobin/hematocrit) at 12 months. Lead screening (B) is risk-based or universal
depending on state/local guidelines, not automatically for all children at 12 months. TB
screening (A) is risk-based only. Fasting lipid panels (D) are reserved for children with
risk factors (family history, obesity) starting at age 2-8 years, not universal at 12
months.
Q4: A 4-year-old child presents for a preschool physical. The nurse practitioner performs
vision screening. Which vision screening method is recommended by the AAP for
children ages 3-5 years?
A. Snellen chart only
B. Instrument-based screening (photoscreening) or visual acuity testing
C. Confrontation visual fields
D. Fundoscopic examination only
B. Instrument-based screening (photoscreening) or visual acuity testing [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: The AAP recommends instrument-based screening (photoscreening) or
visual acuity testing for children ages 3-5 years. Photoscreening can detect amblyopia
risk factors including refractive errors, strabismus, and media opacities. Snellen charts
(A) may be used but are not the only recommended method. Confrontation fields (C)
and fundoscopic exam (D) are components of a comprehensive eye exam but not
primary screening tools for this age group.
Q5: During a 2-month well-child visit, the mother asks about safe sleep practices to
reduce SIDS risk. Which recommendation aligns with AAP 2026 safe sleep guidelines?
A. Place the infant on a soft mattress with a thin blanket tucked around the sides
B. Room-sharing without bed-sharing for at least the first 6 months
C. Use of inclined sleepers for infants with reflux
D. Place the infant on their side or stomach for sleep if they seem more comfortable
B. Room-sharing without bed-sharing for at least the first 6 months [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The AAP recommends room-sharing without bed-sharing for at least the first
6 months, ideally up to 12 months, on a firm, flat sleep surface. Soft mattresses (A) and
loose bedding increase SIDS risk. Inclined sleepers (C) are not recommended due to
suffocation risk. Supine (back) sleeping (D) is the only safe sleep position; side or
stomach sleeping increases SIDS risk.
Q6: A 9-month-old infant is seen for a well-child visit. The parents ask about car seat
safety. According to the AAP and NHTSA 2026 guidelines, which recommendation is
correct?
A. Forward-facing car seat starting at 1 year and 20 pounds
B. Rear-facing car seat until the child reaches the maximum height/weight limit of the
seat
C. Booster seat starting at age 3 if the child is over 30 pounds
D. Front seat passenger position is acceptable with a rear-facing seat if the airbag is
disabled
B. Rear-facing car seat until the child reaches the maximum height/weight limit of the
seat [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: AAP 2026 recommends rear-facing car seats until the child reaches the
maximum height/weight limit of the seat, typically until at least age 2-4 years.
Forward-facing (A) is outdated guidance. Booster seats (C) require the child to be at
least 4 years old and 40 pounds. Front seat (D) is never recommended for children
under 13 years regardless of airbag status.
Q7: A 15-year-old adolescent presents for a sports physical. According to Bright Futures
2026, which screening is recommended at this age?
A. Universal urine drug screening without consent
B. Depression screening using a validated tool
C. Echocardiogram for all athletes
D. PSA testing for prostate cancer screening
B. Depression screening using a validated tool [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bright Futures 2026 recommends annual depression screening for
adolescents ages 12-21 using a validated tool (e.g., PHQ-A). Universal drug screening
(A) requires informed consent and is not routinely recommended without suspicion.
Echocardiograms (C) are not universal for sports physicals; cardiac history and physical
exam guide further testing. PSA testing (D) is not indicated in adolescents.
Q8: A 5-day-old newborn is seen for a follow-up visit after hospital discharge. The
parents ask about newborn screening results. Which condition is included in the
universal newborn screening panel recommended by the HHS Secretary's Advisory
Committee?
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
C. Childhood leukemia
D. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
A. Cystic fibrosis [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cystic fibrosis is included in the Recommended Uniform Screening Panel
(RUSP) for newborn screening. Type 1 diabetes (B), childhood leukemia (C), and juvenile
Care of Children | Verified Questions & Answers | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: PEDIATRIC HEALTH SUPERVISION & PREVENTIVE CARE
Q1: A 2-week-old infant is brought for a routine well-child visit. The parents ask about
the recommended schedule for well-child visits during the first year of life according to
Bright Futures 2026 guidelines. Which schedule should the nurse practitioner
recommend?
A. Birth, 2 weeks, 1 month, 4 months, 6 months, 9 months, 12 months
B. Birth, 2-3 days, 2-4 weeks, 2 months, 4 months, 6 months, 9 months, 12 months
C. Birth, 1 month, 3 months, 6 months, 9 months, 12 months
D. Birth, 2 weeks, 2 months, 6 months, 12 months
B. Birth, 2-3 days, 2-4 weeks, 2 months, 4 months, 6 months, 9 months, 12 months
[CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bright Futures 2026 recommends well-child visits at birth, 2-3 days, 2-4
weeks, 2 months, 4 months, 6 months, 9 months, and 12 months. This schedule allows
for newborn screening follow-up, growth monitoring, developmental surveillance, and
timely immunizations. Option A misses the critical 2-3 day visit for jaundice and weight
assessment. Option C omits the 2-month and 4-month visits essential for early
immunization series. Option D is insufficient for comprehensive surveillance.
Q2: A 6-month-old infant presents for a well-child visit. The parents report the baby can
sit with support and rolls from prone to supine. Which additional developmental
milestone is most appropriate to expect at this age?
A. Pulls to stand independently
B. Transfers objects hand-to-hand
C. Walks holding onto furniture
D. Says "mama" and "dada" specifically
,B. Transfers objects hand-to-hand [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: At 6 months, infants typically transfer objects from hand to hand, bear weight
on legs when held, and begin babbling consonants. Pulling to stand (A) occurs at 9
months. Walking holding furniture (C) emerges at 9-12 months. Specific "mama/dada"
(D) is expected around 9-12 months. Bright Futures 2026 emphasizes developmental
surveillance at each visit using age-appropriate milestones.
Q3: A 12-month-old toddler is seen for a well-child visit. According to Bright Futures
2026, which screening test is recommended at this age?
A. Tuberculin skin test for all children
B. Lead level screening for all children
C. Hemoglobin or hematocrit for anemia screening
D. Fasting lipid panel for all children
C. Hemoglobin or hematocrit for anemia screening [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bright Futures 2026 recommends anemia screening
(hemoglobin/hematocrit) at 12 months. Lead screening (B) is risk-based or universal
depending on state/local guidelines, not automatically for all children at 12 months. TB
screening (A) is risk-based only. Fasting lipid panels (D) are reserved for children with
risk factors (family history, obesity) starting at age 2-8 years, not universal at 12
months.
Q4: A 4-year-old child presents for a preschool physical. The nurse practitioner performs
vision screening. Which vision screening method is recommended by the AAP for
children ages 3-5 years?
A. Snellen chart only
B. Instrument-based screening (photoscreening) or visual acuity testing
C. Confrontation visual fields
D. Fundoscopic examination only
B. Instrument-based screening (photoscreening) or visual acuity testing [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: The AAP recommends instrument-based screening (photoscreening) or
visual acuity testing for children ages 3-5 years. Photoscreening can detect amblyopia
risk factors including refractive errors, strabismus, and media opacities. Snellen charts
(A) may be used but are not the only recommended method. Confrontation fields (C)
and fundoscopic exam (D) are components of a comprehensive eye exam but not
primary screening tools for this age group.
Q5: During a 2-month well-child visit, the mother asks about safe sleep practices to
reduce SIDS risk. Which recommendation aligns with AAP 2026 safe sleep guidelines?
A. Place the infant on a soft mattress with a thin blanket tucked around the sides
B. Room-sharing without bed-sharing for at least the first 6 months
C. Use of inclined sleepers for infants with reflux
D. Place the infant on their side or stomach for sleep if they seem more comfortable
B. Room-sharing without bed-sharing for at least the first 6 months [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The AAP recommends room-sharing without bed-sharing for at least the first
6 months, ideally up to 12 months, on a firm, flat sleep surface. Soft mattresses (A) and
loose bedding increase SIDS risk. Inclined sleepers (C) are not recommended due to
suffocation risk. Supine (back) sleeping (D) is the only safe sleep position; side or
stomach sleeping increases SIDS risk.
Q6: A 9-month-old infant is seen for a well-child visit. The parents ask about car seat
safety. According to the AAP and NHTSA 2026 guidelines, which recommendation is
correct?
A. Forward-facing car seat starting at 1 year and 20 pounds
B. Rear-facing car seat until the child reaches the maximum height/weight limit of the
seat
C. Booster seat starting at age 3 if the child is over 30 pounds
D. Front seat passenger position is acceptable with a rear-facing seat if the airbag is
disabled
B. Rear-facing car seat until the child reaches the maximum height/weight limit of the
seat [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: AAP 2026 recommends rear-facing car seats until the child reaches the
maximum height/weight limit of the seat, typically until at least age 2-4 years.
Forward-facing (A) is outdated guidance. Booster seats (C) require the child to be at
least 4 years old and 40 pounds. Front seat (D) is never recommended for children
under 13 years regardless of airbag status.
Q7: A 15-year-old adolescent presents for a sports physical. According to Bright Futures
2026, which screening is recommended at this age?
A. Universal urine drug screening without consent
B. Depression screening using a validated tool
C. Echocardiogram for all athletes
D. PSA testing for prostate cancer screening
B. Depression screening using a validated tool [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bright Futures 2026 recommends annual depression screening for
adolescents ages 12-21 using a validated tool (e.g., PHQ-A). Universal drug screening
(A) requires informed consent and is not routinely recommended without suspicion.
Echocardiograms (C) are not universal for sports physicals; cardiac history and physical
exam guide further testing. PSA testing (D) is not indicated in adolescents.
Q8: A 5-day-old newborn is seen for a follow-up visit after hospital discharge. The
parents ask about newborn screening results. Which condition is included in the
universal newborn screening panel recommended by the HHS Secretary's Advisory
Committee?
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
C. Childhood leukemia
D. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
A. Cystic fibrosis [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cystic fibrosis is included in the Recommended Uniform Screening Panel
(RUSP) for newborn screening. Type 1 diabetes (B), childhood leukemia (C), and juvenile
