NUR 6130 Exam 3 V3 | NUR 6130
Advanced Practice Nursing III | Q&A with
Rationale (NUR6130 Exam 3) | William
Paterson University
1. A 24-year-old female presents for her routine well-woman examination. According to
current USPSTF guidelines, which of the following is the most appropriate cervical cancer
screening strategy for this patient?
A. Primary HPV testing every 5 years.
B. Co-testing with cytology and HPV every 5 years.
C. Cervical cytology (Pap smear) every 3 years.
D. No screening is required until age 30.
Answer: C
Rationale: For women aged 21 to 29 years, current guidelines recommend screening with
cervical cytology alone every 3 years. Co-testing or primary HPV testing is not
recommended in this age group because of the high prevalence of transient HPV infections
that often resolve spontaneously. Starting at age 30, the options expand to include co-
testing or primary HPV testing every 5 years.
,2. An 8-month-old infant is brought to the clinic for a well-child visit. The mother is concerned
that the infant is not yet crawling. Which developmental milestone should the nurse
practitioner expect an infant to achieve by this age?
A. Walking with assistance.
B. Using a neat pincer grasp.
C. Sitting independently without support.
D. Saying three to five specific words.
Answer: C
Rationale: By 8 to 9 months of age, most infants should be able to sit steadily without
support and transfer objects from one hand to the other. Crawling is a variable milestone
and not meeting it at 8 months is not necessarily a developmental delay. A neat pincer
grasp and walking with assistance are milestones typically associated with a 10-12 month
old infant.
3. A 3-year-old child presents with a sudden onset of a barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and
mild retractions. The symptoms are worse at night. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Epiglottitis
B. Bacterial Tracheitis
C. Laryngotracheobronchitis (Croup)
D. Foreign body aspiration
,Answer: C
Rationale: Laryngotracheobronchitis, commonly known as Croup, is characterized by a
viral-induced inflammation of the upper airway resulting in a ‘barky’ cough and stridor. It
typically affects children between 6 months and 3 years of age and often worsens at night.
Epiglottitis is a medical emergency that presents with high fever, drooling, and a ‘tripod’
position, but lacks the barking cough.
4. Which of the following is considered a contraindication for the use of combined oral
contraceptives (COCs) in a female patient?
A. Dysmenorrhea
B. Family history of breast cancer
C. History of Migraine with Aura
D. Controlled hypertension
Answer: C
Rationale: Migraine with aura is a Category 4 contraindication for combined oral
contraceptives due to the significantly increased risk of ischemic stroke. Patients with this
condition should be offered progestin-only methods or non-hormonal options.
Dysmenorrhea is actually an indication for COCs, and a family history of breast cancer is
not a contraindication.
, 5. A 5-week-old infant is brought to the clinic with a history of non-bilious projectile vomiting
after every feeding. On physical exam, a small, olive-shaped mass is palpable in the
epigastrium. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Gastroesophageal reflux
B. Intussusception
C. Hirschsprung’s disease
D. Pyloric Stenosis
Answer: D
Rationale: Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis typically presents in infants between 3 to 6
weeks of age with forceful, non-bilious projectile vomiting. The ‘olive sign’ represents the
hypertrophied pylorus and is pathognomonic for the condition. Diagnosis is usually
confirmed via ultrasound showing a thickened and elongated pyloric muscle.
6. A 16-year-old female is diagnosed with Bacterial Vaginosis (BV). Which finding on a wet
mount would confirm this diagnosis?
A. Clue cells
B. Hyphae and spores
C. Trichomonads
D. White blood cells > 10 per high-power field
Answer: A
Advanced Practice Nursing III | Q&A with
Rationale (NUR6130 Exam 3) | William
Paterson University
1. A 24-year-old female presents for her routine well-woman examination. According to
current USPSTF guidelines, which of the following is the most appropriate cervical cancer
screening strategy for this patient?
A. Primary HPV testing every 5 years.
B. Co-testing with cytology and HPV every 5 years.
C. Cervical cytology (Pap smear) every 3 years.
D. No screening is required until age 30.
Answer: C
Rationale: For women aged 21 to 29 years, current guidelines recommend screening with
cervical cytology alone every 3 years. Co-testing or primary HPV testing is not
recommended in this age group because of the high prevalence of transient HPV infections
that often resolve spontaneously. Starting at age 30, the options expand to include co-
testing or primary HPV testing every 5 years.
,2. An 8-month-old infant is brought to the clinic for a well-child visit. The mother is concerned
that the infant is not yet crawling. Which developmental milestone should the nurse
practitioner expect an infant to achieve by this age?
A. Walking with assistance.
B. Using a neat pincer grasp.
C. Sitting independently without support.
D. Saying three to five specific words.
Answer: C
Rationale: By 8 to 9 months of age, most infants should be able to sit steadily without
support and transfer objects from one hand to the other. Crawling is a variable milestone
and not meeting it at 8 months is not necessarily a developmental delay. A neat pincer
grasp and walking with assistance are milestones typically associated with a 10-12 month
old infant.
3. A 3-year-old child presents with a sudden onset of a barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and
mild retractions. The symptoms are worse at night. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Epiglottitis
B. Bacterial Tracheitis
C. Laryngotracheobronchitis (Croup)
D. Foreign body aspiration
,Answer: C
Rationale: Laryngotracheobronchitis, commonly known as Croup, is characterized by a
viral-induced inflammation of the upper airway resulting in a ‘barky’ cough and stridor. It
typically affects children between 6 months and 3 years of age and often worsens at night.
Epiglottitis is a medical emergency that presents with high fever, drooling, and a ‘tripod’
position, but lacks the barking cough.
4. Which of the following is considered a contraindication for the use of combined oral
contraceptives (COCs) in a female patient?
A. Dysmenorrhea
B. Family history of breast cancer
C. History of Migraine with Aura
D. Controlled hypertension
Answer: C
Rationale: Migraine with aura is a Category 4 contraindication for combined oral
contraceptives due to the significantly increased risk of ischemic stroke. Patients with this
condition should be offered progestin-only methods or non-hormonal options.
Dysmenorrhea is actually an indication for COCs, and a family history of breast cancer is
not a contraindication.
, 5. A 5-week-old infant is brought to the clinic with a history of non-bilious projectile vomiting
after every feeding. On physical exam, a small, olive-shaped mass is palpable in the
epigastrium. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Gastroesophageal reflux
B. Intussusception
C. Hirschsprung’s disease
D. Pyloric Stenosis
Answer: D
Rationale: Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis typically presents in infants between 3 to 6
weeks of age with forceful, non-bilious projectile vomiting. The ‘olive sign’ represents the
hypertrophied pylorus and is pathognomonic for the condition. Diagnosis is usually
confirmed via ultrasound showing a thickened and elongated pyloric muscle.
6. A 16-year-old female is diagnosed with Bacterial Vaginosis (BV). Which finding on a wet
mount would confirm this diagnosis?
A. Clue cells
B. Hyphae and spores
C. Trichomonads
D. White blood cells > 10 per high-power field
Answer: A
